Held 13 September 2025Booklet WOP-25, paper code 11Answers from RPSC's final answer key (28 January 2026)
'Barah Kothari' is related to which State among the following?
Explanation
As per the final key, 'Barah Kothari' is associated with the Amer (Kachhwaha) state. The other options are different historical states and are not linked with this term.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Devnarayan Ji -
Explanation
Statement (3) is incorrect: per the key, the priests (Bhopas) of Devji's temples are not 'always' married Gurjars. The Phad of Devnarayan is sung by Bhopas, so (4) is correct.
The 'Panchkula Institution' in Medieval Rajasthan was related to -
Explanation
The Panchkula was a body of five members that dealt with local (village and town level) administration in medieval Rajasthan. It was not a central or military body.
Which folk dance is related to marriage in the Garasia Tribe?
Explanation
As per the key, Loor is the Garasia dance related to marriage; Valar is a different Garasia dance, so it is not the answer here.
Inspired by the ideas of which of the following, Govind Guru founded 'Samp Sabha'?
Explanation
Govind Guru was inspired by the ideas of Swami Dayanand Saraswati and founded the Samp Sabha (1883) among the Bhils. Gandhi's movement came later than the founding.
The folk instrument of the Bhils of Vagad and Chhappan, which is a split bamboo with serrated grooves on both sides, is called -
Explanation
Per the key, the split-bamboo instrument with serrated grooves played by the Bhils is the Kagrachh. Khartal is a clapper-type instrument of wood and is not made this way.
Which ruler of Jaipur built 'Talkatora' located in Jaipur?
Explanation
Talkatora in Jaipur was built by Sawai Jai Singh II, the founder of the city. Mirza Raja Jai Singh was an earlier Amer ruler and is not credited with it.
Which wood is basically used in making puppets?
Explanation
Rajasthani Kathputli puppets are traditionally carved from a light wood; the key gives Aadu (peach). Heavier woods such as acacia are not used.
At which place did Dariyav Ji establish the throne of his Sect?
Explanation
Dariyav Ji's Ramsnehi sect has its main seat (gaddi) at Ren (Nagaur). Deedwana is associated with other saints/sects, not the Dariyavi gaddi.
Who provided financial assistance for armed revolution to Rash Behari Bose and Raja Mahendra Pratap during First World War?
Explanation
Damodar Das Rathi of Beawar financed the revolutionary activities of Rash Behari Bose and Raja Mahendra Pratap. Amarchand Banthiya helped the 1857 rebels, not this effort.
'Bandola' is a ritual related to which social ceremony?
Explanation
Bandola is a marriage ritual in Rajasthan in which the bride and groom are taken round and feasted at relatives' homes before the wedding. It is not linked with death, birth or upanayan.
At which place in Bhilwara district, the Mandakini temple famous as a tourist destination is located?
Explanation
The Mandakini temple (Mandakini Kund) is at Bijolia in Bhilwara district, which is also known for the Bijolia peasant movement. Jahazpur is known for other monuments.
Rajawati, Chaurasi and Nagarchol are sub-dialects of which dialect?
Explanation
These are sub-dialects of Dhundhari (Jaipuri), spoken in the Jaipur region. Hadoti and Mewati have different sub-dialects.
Which festival is also known as 'Turra Panchami' in Marwar?
Explanation
In Marwar, Basant Panchami is also called Turra Panchami. Naag Panchami and Rang Panchami are different festivals.
In which of the following forts, 52 ponds were constructed for storing rainwater?
Explanation
As per the final key, the fort with 52 kunds for rainwater harvesting is Bhatner. The other forts in the options are not keyed for this feature.
Who illustrated the 'Bhagvat' in the Mewar Style in 1648 AD?
Explanation
The 1648 Bhagvat in the Mewar style, from the time of Maharana Jagat Singh, was illustrated by the painter Sahabadi (Sahibdin). The other names are not linked with this work.
Which is the 'Muktak Poetry' of Rajasthani language?
Explanation
Per the key, Panchak is the muktak (self-contained verse) form of Rajasthani literature. Vaat and Vigat are prose forms, so they are not muktak poetry.
Which state made the first attempt to stop the evil practice of taking 'Samadhi'?
Explanation
As per the key, Jaipur state was the first to try to stop the practice of taking Samadhi. The other states acted later.
In the context of Greater Rajasthan Union, match List-I with List-II and select the correct code given below - List-I List-II (A) Jaipur (I) Maharaj Pramukh (B) Kota-Jodhpur (II) Rajpramukh (C) Bundi and Dungarpur (III) Senior Up-Rajpramukh (D) Udaipur (IV) Junior Up-Rajpramukh
Explanation
In Greater Rajasthan (1949) Jaipur's ruler was Rajpramukh, Kota-Jodhpur had the Senior Up-Rajpramukh, Bundi-Dungarpur the Junior Up-Rajpramukh and Udaipur's ruler was Maharaj Pramukh, giving A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
'Uddrang' term was associated to which among the following during Medieval Rajasthan?
Explanation
Uddrang was a tax on agricultural produce in medieval Rajasthan. It was not a punishment, a grant or a unit of measure.
Which revolt is called 'Hul' among following?
Explanation
The Santhal rebellion of 1855-56 led by Sidhu and Kanhu is called 'Hul' (Santhal Hul). The Kol revolt is a different tribal revolt of Chhotanagpur.
Which among the following statement is NOT true about the end of Colonial Rule in 1947?
Explanation
Statement (3) is false: the Constituent Assembly met under the chairmanship of Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee). The other statements are accurate.
Among the following (Text - Author) pair, choose the incorrect match -
Explanation
Per the key, (3) is the incorrect pair. Maasir-i-Alamgiri (Saqi Musta'd Khan), Kathavatthu (Moggaliputta Tissa) and Kiratarjuniyam (Bharavi) are correctly matched.
Who headed the Linguistic Provinces Commission, constituted in June 1948?
Explanation
The Linguistic Provinces Commission (Dar Commission) of June 1948 was headed by S.K. Dar. The JVP committee (Jawaharlal, Vallabhbhai, Pattabhi) came later in December 1948.
Who among the following was NOT 'Savarkar brothers'?
Explanation
The Savarkar brothers were Ganesh (Babarao), Vinayak and Narayan, all sons of Damodar. Damodar Hari (Chapekar) was a different revolutionary of the Chapekar brothers (Pune 1897).
When Goa, Daman and Diu were liberated from Portuguese rule?
Explanation
Goa, Daman and Diu were liberated in December 1961 through Operation Vijay. 1954 was when Dadra and Nagar Haveli were freed.
Among the following (Temple/Monument - Dynasty/Ruler) pair, choose the incorrect match -
Explanation
The Badshahi Mosque (Lahore) was built by Aurangzeb, not Shah Jahan, so (3) is the incorrect match. Bhitargaon (Gupta) and Alai Darwaza (Alauddin Khalji) are correct.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option with the help of code given below - List-I List-II (A) Somprakash (i) V.N. Mandlik (B) Indian Mirror (ii) Debendranath Tagore (C) Yugantar (iii) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (D) Native Opinion (iv) Barindra Ghosh
Explanation
Somprakash was founded by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Indian Mirror by Debendranath Tagore, Yugantar by Barindra Ghosh and Native Opinion by V.N. Mandlik, which is code (1).
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
Explanation
Ram Mohan Roy died on 27 September 1833 at Bristol (Stapleton), not London, so statement (3) is false. The Precepts of Jesus (1820) and the Brahmo Samaj (1828) are correct.
Among the following, who was the priest of the Kali temple at Dakshineshwar?
Explanation
Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was the priest of the Dakshineswar Kali temple; his disciple Narendranath became Swami Vivekananda.
Among the following (Ruler - Dynasty) pairs, choose the incorrect match -
Explanation
Mahmud Gawan was the minister of the Bahmani kingdom, not a Khalji. The other three pairs are correct.
According to Arthashastra of Kautilya, among the following (Adhyaksha - Officer) pair, choose the correct match -
Explanation
Akaradhyaksha was the superintendent of mines. Navadhyaksha headed ships/navy (not agriculture), and Sannidhata was the chief treasury officer.
Who were the founders of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), 1927?
Explanation
FICCI was founded in 1927 on the initiative of Purushottamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla, with Gandhi's blessing. The Tatas and Tagores were not its founders.
Which book among the following is NOT written by Dr. Ambedkar?
Explanation
The Nadars of Tamilnad is by Robert L. Hardgrave Jr., not Ambedkar. The first three are Ambedkar's works.
Which Sufi Saint among the following is called 'Sultan-ut-Tarikin'?
Explanation
Hamiduddin Nagori, a disciple of Moinuddin Chishti who settled at Nagaur, was called Sultan-ut-Tarikin. Moinuddin Chishti is a different title-holder in the Chishti tradition.
Which one of the following statements about the power/jurisdiction of the Lokpal of India is NOT correct?
Explanation
The Lokpal's jurisdiction covers societies/trusts receiving foreign donations above the limit set in the Act (Rs 10 lakh a year), not 'any amount', so (2) is incorrect. The PM is covered, with safeguards for certain subjects.
Consider the following statements regarding The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 - (I) The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 was enacted to replace the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. (II) The Act established the Central Consumer Protection Authority effective from July 2019. (III) The Act expands the definition of consumer to include individuals engaging in online purchases or services. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
The 2019 Act replaced the 1986 Act and widened 'consumer' to cover online and teleshopping transactions, so (I) and (III) are correct. The CCPA was set up in July 2020, not July 2019, so (II) is wrong.
Which of the following former Chief Minister was referred to as the "Rockefeller of India" by the then President of the World Bank, Robert McNamara, in recognition of his fundamental ideas for the welfare of the poor?
Explanation
Bhairon Singh Shekhawat, who launched the Antyodaya idea for the poorest families, was called the 'Rockefeller of India' by Robert McNamara. The other leaders are not known by this title.
Which one of the following (Section of the Act - Contents) pair is NOT correctly matched with reference to Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011?
Explanation
Section 10 of the Act is the rule-making power, not revision, so (1) is the wrongly matched pair. Section 2 (definitions) and Section 5 (providing service within the time limit) are correct.
Which of the following is/are characteristic/s of the Public Interest Litigation? (I) Flexibility in normal judicial procedure. (II) Innovative and proactive interpretation of legal and fundamental rights of the people. (III) Strict adherence to the rule of 'Locus Standi'. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
PIL relaxes normal procedure and uses creative, proactive interpretation of rights. It relaxes, rather than strictly applies, the rule of locus standi, so (III) is wrong.
Which of the following committee/s of the Constituent Assembly did Rajendra Prasad NOT chair as its Chairman? (I) Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag (II) Finance and Staff Committee (III) Order of Business Committee (IV) Credential Committee Choose the correct answer -
Explanation
Rajendra Prasad chaired the Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag and the Finance and Staff Committee. The Order of Business Committee (K.M. Munshi) and the Credentials Committee (Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar) were chaired by others.
Consider the following statements regarding the State Reorganization Commission (1953) - (I) In its 1955 report, the Commission stated to recognise linguistic homogeneity as important factor conducive to administrative convenience and efficiency, but not to consider it as an exclusive and binding principle, overriding all other considerations, administrative, financial or political. (II) Following the recommendations of the commission, however, Bombay and Punjab were not reorganised on the linguistic basis. Choose the correct answer -
Explanation
The SRC (Fazl Ali) treated language as an important but not the sole factor, and it did not recommend splitting bilingual Bombay and Punjab on linguistic lines; both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012 - (I) In Rajasthan, the Right to Hearing Act has been implemented on 1 August 2012. (II) This Act received the assent of the Governor on the 21st day of May 2012. (III) This Act was enacted by the Rajasthan State Legislature in the Sixty-third year of the Republic of India. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
The official key marks only statement (I) as correct (the Act was brought into force on 1 August 2012). The Act's text itself records Governor's assent on 21 May 2012 and enactment in the 63rd year of the Republic, so the key is debatable.
In which of the following cases did the court state that the Preamble to our Constitution is "not of the common run", as is the Preamble in a legislative enactment, but was marked both by a "stamp of deep deliberation and precision"?
Explanation
The observation is from Justice Mudholkar's opinion in Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (1965), which saw the Preamble as carefully framed, unlike the Preamble of an ordinary Act. Kesavananda Bharati (1973) later held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution.
In which of the following matters, Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission can take Suo-moto action? (I) Exploitation of mentally retarded persons (II) Public health hazards (III) Custodial death Choose the correct option -
Explanation
A State Human Rights Commission can act suo motu on human rights violations such as exploitation of vulnerable persons, public health hazards and custodial deaths. Options with only two items are wrong because all three matters qualify.
Consider the following statements regarding Library Committee of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly - (I) Library Committee is consisting of not more than fifteen members including the Chairman. (II) The Library Committee shall be nominated by the Speaker and the term of office of its members shall not exceed one year. Choose the correct answer -
Explanation
As keyed, only statement (II) is correct: the Speaker nominates the committee and members serve for up to one year. Statement (I) fails on the committee's size, which is not as stated.
Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution of India - (I) Under the Article 324(1), the conduct of all elections to the Legislature of every State shall be vested in State Election Commission. (II) Under the Article 243-K, the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission. (III) Under the Article 243-ZA, the conduct of all elections to the Municipalities shall be vested in the State Election Commission. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
Article 243K (Panchayats) and Article 243ZA (Municipalities) vest election conduct in the State Election Commission. Under Article 324(1), elections to State Legislatures are conducted by the Election Commission of India, so (I) is wrong.
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan Public Service Commission - (I) All the members of Rajasthan Public Service Commission are persons who at the dates of their respective appointments have held office for at least ten years under the Government of India or under the Government of a State. (II) The expenses of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission are charged on the consolidated fund of the Rajasthan State. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
Under Article 322, the expenses of a State Public Service Commission are charged on the State's Consolidated Fund. Article 316(1) requires only that at least one-half of the members have held office for ten years, not all, so (I) is wrong.
Consider the following statements regarding commencement of sitting in the Loksabha - (I) The sitting of the House duly constituted, when it is presided over by the Speaker or any other member competent to preside over a sitting of the House under the Constitution of India or the Rules. (II) Presence of ministers is not necessary for constituting a sitting of the House. Choose the correct answer -
Explanation
A sitting is constituted once the Speaker or another member competent to preside takes the chair, and the presence of ministers is not a requirement. Both statements are therefore correct.
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment amended Article 171(1) of the Constitution of India to provide that the total number of members of a State Legislative Council shall not exceed "one-third" instead of "one-fourth" of the total number of members of the State Legislative Assembly?
Explanation
The 7th Amendment (1956), made during States Reorganisation, raised the Council's ceiling from one-fourth to one-third of the Assembly strength. The Council must also have at least 40 members.
Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairman of the Rajasthan High Court Legal Services Committee, Jaipur Bench of the Rajasthan High Court in February 2024?
Explanation
As per the final key, Justice Indrajeet Singh was appointed Chairman of the Rajasthan High Court Legal Services Committee, Jaipur Bench, in February 2024. The other judges named are also Rajasthan High Court judges but were not appointed to this post.
Who among the following are the members of the Project Approval Committee (PAC) under the 'Rajasthan Data Centre Policy'? (I) Commissioner, Department of Industries and Commerce (II) Commissioner, Department of IT and Communication (III) Managing Director, RIICO (IV) Secretary, Department of Home Choose the correct option -
Explanation
As keyed, the Project Approval Committee includes the Commissioners of Industries and Commerce and of IT and Communication and the Managing Director of RIICO. The Home Department Secretary is not a member, so options including (IV) are wrong.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Government of India Act, 1935 - (I) In Provinces, the Council of Ministers was to be responsible to the legislature but the legislature could not remove the Council of Ministers by passing a vote of no-confidence. (II) The Act separated Burma from India and two new provinces of Orissa and Punjab were created. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
The 1935 Act separated Burma and created two new provinces, Orissa and Sind (not Punjab), so (II) is wrong. Provincial ministers were answerable to the legislature, which could remove them by a no-confidence vote, so (I) is wrong too.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Article 14 of the Constitution of India - (I) The guiding principle underlying Article 14 is that all persons and things similarly circumstanced shall be treated alike both in privileges conferred and liabilities imposed. (II) Article 14 forbids both class legislation and reasonable classification. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
Article 14 requires like treatment of persons similarly situated, so (I) is correct. It forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification, so (II) is wrong.
Consider the following statements - (I) Governor's Relief Fund was constituted in 1975 in Rajasthan. (II) The Governor's Relief Fund is spent as per the prescribed procedure as per the orders and instructions of His Excellency the Governor. Choose the correct option -
Explanation
As keyed, only (II) is correct: the fund is spent by the prescribed procedure under the Governor's orders. The year of constitution given in (I) is not correct.
Among the following, which is NOT a biodiversity hotspot of the world?
Explanation
The Amazon Basin is a major biodiversity region but is not on the list of the 36 Conservation International hotspots, which are defined by endemism and habitat loss. The Mediterranean Basin, Sundaland and Madagascar are all listed.
Which one of the following (Mineral - Mining Area) is NOT correctly matched?
Explanation
As keyed, rock phosphate is not matched with Nath ki Neri; the main Rajasthan rock phosphate area is Jhamarkotra (Udaipur). The other pairs follow the standard Rajasthan mineral lists.
Atal Tunnel connecting Manali to Lahaul-Spiti is built in which of the following mountain range?
Explanation
Atal (Rohtang) Tunnel, about 9.02 km long, passes under the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalaya. It connects Manali with Lahaul-Spiti valley.
As per Census 2011, how many districts of Rajasthan were having female literacy rate above 60%?
Explanation
As per the key, three districts of Rajasthan had female literacy above 60% in Census 2011 (Kota is among the highest). The state's overall female literacy was only about 52.7%.
The approach of sustainable development is the outcome of which of the following Environmental Summit?
Explanation
The 1992 Rio Earth Summit (UNCED) popularised sustainable development and adopted Agenda 21. The Stockholm Conference (1972) was the first major environment conference but did not frame this approach.
Which of the following bird/s is/are being conserved under Artificial Breeding Programme by the Rajasthan Government? (A) Lesser Florican (B) Great Indian Bustard (C) Gagroni Parrot (D) Green Munia Code -
Explanation
As keyed, the Rajasthan artificial breeding programme covers Lesser Florican, Great Indian Bustard and Green Munia. Gagroni parrot is not included in the keyed answer.
Boston city is the major centre of which of the following industrial region of USA?
Explanation
Boston is the main centre of the New England industrial region of north-east USA. Pittsburgh-Cleveland (steel) and the Mid-Atlantic Coast (New York, Philadelphia, Baltimore) are separate regions.
On which of the following river is Kaliteer Lift Project located?
Explanation
The Kaliteer lift project in Dholpur district is on the Chambal, which also supplies several other Rajasthan lift schemes. Banas and Western Banas are rivers of other regions of the state.
The lakes formed by wind in Western Rajasthan are known as -
Explanation
Wind-formed depressions that hold water in the Thar desert are called Dhand. Dhariyan are sand dune ridges in Jaisalmer and Dhora is a general term for dunes, not lakes.
Which one of the following (Shifting Agriculture - State) is correctly matched?
Explanation
Dahiya is the name of shifting cultivation in Madhya Pradesh. Podu is used in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha, not Nagaland, and Kuruwa is a Jharkhand name.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below - List-I (Mountain): (A) Etna (B) Fujiyama (C) Popa (D) Cook List-II (Place): (i) Myanmar (ii) New Zealand (iii) Italy (iv) Japan Code -
Explanation
Etna is a volcano in Italy, Fujiyama (Mt Fuji) is in Japan, Popa is in Myanmar and Mount Cook is the highest peak of New Zealand. That gives (A)-iii, (B)-iv, (C)-i, (D)-ii.
Which one of the following is a volcanic island in India?
Explanation
Barren Island in the Andaman Sea is India's only confirmed active volcano. Great Nicobar and Car Nicobar are not volcanic, and New Moor was an island in the Bay of Bengal that disappeared.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using code given below - List-I (Paper Mill): (A) Titagarh (B) Ballarpur (C) Kagaznagar (D) Nepanagar List-II (Location): (i) Telangana (ii) Madhya Pradesh (iii) West Bengal (iv) Maharashtra Code -
Explanation
Titagarh is in West Bengal, Ballarpur in Maharashtra, Kagaznagar in Telangana and Nepanagar (newsprint) in Madhya Pradesh. This matches option (1).
The 'Honolulu Port' is situated on which of the following international oceanic waterway?
Explanation
The key gives the South Pacific waterway. Note: Honolulu (Hawaii) lies in the North Pacific, so the keyed answer is doubtful; the principle is that Honolulu is a mid-Pacific port on routes linking North America and Asia/Oceania.
Which one of the following (Iron Ore Mine/Reserve - State) is NOT correctly matched?
Explanation
Bonai is in Sundargarh district of Odisha, not Jharkhand. The other three pairs are correct.
In Indian Economy, the relative share of the Agriculture Sector (A), the Industry Sector (B) and the Service Sector (C) in the total employment in the year 2023-24 in descending order was as follows - Choose the correct code - Code -
Explanation
In 2023-24 agriculture still employed the largest share of workers (about 46%), followed by services and then industry. So the order is A > C > B.
The Consumer Price Index which is used to measure retail inflation in India, is -
Explanation
Retail inflation in India is measured by CPI-Combined (rural plus urban), released by NSO/MoSPI and used by the RBI for its inflation target. CPI-IW and CPI-AL/RL are sectional indices for specific groups.
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding PM JANMAN Mission in Rajasthan?
Explanation
PM JANMAN (2023) targets 75 PVTGs across India. As keyed, option (2) is the incorrect statement about Rajasthan, where the eligible PVTG is the Sahariya (Baran district area) rather than the districts as listed.
In the production of which crop did Rajasthan contribute more than ninety percent to the country's total production in 2022-23 as per 'Economic Review' (2024-25)?
Explanation
Rajasthan produces nearly 90% of India's guar, far above its shares in bajra and rapeseed-mustard (each roughly 40-45%). Jowar is grown more in Maharashtra and Karnataka.
What is the value of India's merchandise exports in 2024-25?
Explanation
India's merchandise exports in 2024-25 were US$ 437.42 billion, up about 0.1% over 2023-24. Total exports including services were around US$ 820 billion.
Which of the following system is adopted in Rajasthan to ensure transparency and strengthen accountability in Public Finance Management?
Explanation
Rajasthan uses the Integrated Financial Management System (IFMS), which brings budgeting, payments and accounting onto one platform for transparency and accountability. The other names are not systems in use.
Consider the following statements regarding Health Indicators in Rajasthan - (A) Crude Birth Rate has been declining since 2005 but has always been above the All-India average. (B) Crude Death Rate has been declining since 2005 but has always been above All-India average. (C) Infant Mortality Rate has been declining since 2005 but has always been above All-India average. Choose the correct answer by using the following code - Code -
Explanation
Rajasthan's birth rate and infant mortality rate have fallen since 2005 but stayed above the national average, so (A) and (C) hold. Rajasthan's death rate has been at or below the all-India level, so (B) is wrong.
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan's GSDP and Budget Deficit and choose the correct answer using the code given below - (i) The Gross State Domestic Product of Rajasthan for 2024-25 at current prices is projected to be ₹ 1781078 Crore, amounting to growth of 17 percent over 2023-24. (ii) Fiscal deficit for 2024-25 is targeted at 4.3 percent of GSDP as per the revised estimate for the year 2023-24, fiscal deficit is expected to be 3.9 percent of GSDP, lower than the budget estimate of 4.2 percent. Code -
Explanation
As keyed, only statement (i) is correct; statement (ii) mis-states the fiscal deficit figures in the Economic Review. Such budget-number statements must be checked against the Rajasthan Economic Review.
Consider the following statements with regards to district-wise international tourists visit in Rajasthan in 2023 and 2024 - (i) Jaipur shifted to second position as the most visited district because of a significant drop of 249353 tourists from 2023 to 2024. (ii) Udaipur saw an exceptional increase of 269838 international tourist visitors, more than double of its 2023 figures. Which of the above is/are correct?
Explanation
As keyed, only (ii) is correct: Udaipur's international arrivals rose sharply. Jaipur did not slip to second place, so (i) is wrong. This is a data-recall item from the Rajasthan Economic Review.
Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram in Rajasthan is aimed -
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK, earlier the Multi-sectoral Development Programme) targets development gaps in minority-concentrated areas, mainly social and economic infrastructure. The other options describe general outreach, not the scheme's aim.
Consider the following statements - (i) India's rank in the Global Innovation Index has improved to 39th in 2024 among 133 economies from 81st position in 2015. (ii) The gross expenditure on research and development in India is only 0.64 percent of GDP. Choose the right answer using the code given below - Code -
Explanation
India ranked 39th in the Global Innovation Index 2024 (81st in 2015), and its gross R&D spending is about 0.64 percent of GDP, so both statements are correct. The low R&D share is a frequently cited weakness.
Consider the following statements regarding service sector of India and select correct answer using code given below - (i) Information and computer related services had maximum buoyancy among all the services during the last decade (FY13 to FY23). (ii) Its share in overall Gross Value Added increased from 10 percent in FY13 to 16 percent in FY23. Code -
Explanation
As keyed, only (i) is correct: IT and computer-related services showed the highest buoyancy over FY13-FY23. The share figures in (ii) are not the ones reported (the share rose by a smaller margin), so (ii) fails.
How much amount is provided by the Rajasthan Government to the children of construction workers on passing the Preliminary Examination of the Rajasthan Administrative Service?
Explanation
As per the final key, the amount is ₹ 50,000 for children of registered construction workers who clear the RAS Preliminary Examination. The larger amounts are distractors.
Bureau of Investment Promotion of Rajasthan is headed by -
Explanation
The Bureau of Investment Promotion (BIP) is headed by the Chief Minister, who is its chairperson, which signals the priority given to investment. The Industry Minister and Chief Secretary are not its head.
Consider the following statements related to the progress of Sustainable Development Goals in Rajasthan. Statement (I) : Rajasthan has improved its overall Sustainable Development Goals score from 60 in 2020-21 to 73 in 2023-24. Statement (II) : Rajasthan has made notable progress for the Goal of Responsible Consumption and Production with achieving a perfect score of 100. Choose the correct option from the following -
Explanation
As keyed, both statements are incorrect; the exact scores quoted do not match the reported SDG index figures. NITI Aayog's SDG India Index is the source for such questions.
Consider the following statements - (i) The 34th Senior National Wushu Championship was held in Patna, Bihar, from June 13-18, 2025. (ii) Rajasthan won the 34th Senior National Wushu Overall Championship with 28 medals (10 gold, 8 silver, and 10 bronze medals). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
As keyed, neither statement is correct; the venue, dates or medal tally given do not match the actual event. Note also that 10 + 8 + 10 = 28 only adds up, which does not by itself make the claim true.
Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi released a commemorative coin honouring which emperor at Aadi Thiruvathirai Festival at Gangaikonda Cholapuram, Tamil Nadu?
Explanation
Gangaikonda Cholapuram was founded by Rajendra Chola I, and the coin honoured him on the 1000th anniversary of his Southeast Asia expedition. Rajaraja Chola I, his father, built the Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur.
Consider the following statements regarding installed Nuclear Power Capacity in India as of 6 August, 2025: (I) The installed capacity in the country comprises of 24 reactors with a total capacity of 7860 Megawatt. (II) Among these 24 reactors, 4 reactors are in project mode for carrying out refurbishment and upgradation activities and remaining 20 reactors are operational. Choose the correct answer -
Explanation
As keyed, only (II) is correct: of the 24 reactors, 4 are in project mode for refurbishment and 20 are operational. Statement (I) fails because the capacity figure of 7860 MW does not match the official figure for the fleet.
Who among the following athletes have won gold medals in the 10000 meters race in men and women category respectively in the State Level Under-23 Athletics Championship 2025 held at Jhunjhunu in July 2025?
Explanation
The final key gives Aryan Saini (men) and Sushila Prajapat (women). This is a regional sports news item with no reasoning route; it has to be recalled.
Who among the following is the author of the book 'The New World : 21st Century Global Order and India'?
Explanation
The book is by Ram Madhav, a political commentator and RSS-linked leader. The other names are state governors or politicians, not the author.
During the 2025 NATO Summit held in The Hague on June 24-25, 2025, member countries committed to increase their annual defence expenditure to what target percentage of GDP by the year 2035?
Explanation
At The Hague, NATO members pledged to raise defence-related spending to 5 percent of GDP by 2035 (3.5 percent core defence plus 1.5 percent related spending). The earlier benchmark was 2 percent.
The 88th Codex Executive Committee meet from 14 to 18 July 2025 was held at -
Explanation
As keyed, the meeting was held in Rome, Italy, where the FAO, a parent body of the Codex Alimentarius Commission, is headquartered. Codex is run jointly by FAO and WHO.
Consider the following statements with reference to World Police and Fire Games and choose the correct option - Statement (A) : These games are organized once every 2 years since 1985. Statement (B) : India has got the hosting of these games for the second time in 2029. Statement (C) : The 20th edition of these games was held in Canada in 2023 in which Indian Police players won 224 gold medals.
Explanation
As keyed, (A) and (C) are true: the Games began in 1985 and are held every two years, and the 2023 edition was in Winnipeg, Canada. Statement (B) is wrong as worded.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Varishth Nagrik Teerth Yatra Yojna-2025' - (I) As per the announcement in the State Budget for the year 2025-2026, fifty-two thousand senior citizens will be taken on pilgrimage by air-conditioned train and four thousand senior citizens by airplane. (II) A waiting list of 100% additional passengers will also be prepared for the journey. Choose the correct answer -
Explanation
As keyed, only (II) is correct: a waiting list of 100 percent additional passengers is to be prepared. The numbers of pilgrims by train and air in (I) do not match the budget announcement.
How many awards were given for outstanding contribution in the Handloom Sector on the 11th National Handloom Day celebration on 7th August 2025?
Explanation
As keyed, 5 Sant Kabir Awards and 19 National Handloom Awards were given (24 in all). National Handloom Day is observed on 7 August, marking the 1905 Swadeshi Movement.
A letter series of English alphabets is formed such that between each two consecutive adjacent terms number of alphabets is decreased by 1. The letter series is -
Explanation
D to J has 5 letters between (E-I), J to O has 4, O to S has 3, S to V has 2, so the gaps drop by 1 each time. The other options break this pattern.
A certain sum of money gets a simple interest of ₹ 1600 over a 2-year period. The same sum of money invested at the same rate of interest on a compound interest basis for a period of 2 years, gets an interest of ₹ 1700. What is the principal amount?
Explanation
Yearly SI is 800. CI minus SI for 2 years is 100, which equals 800 x r, so r = 1/8 (12.5%). Principal = 800 / (1/8) = ₹ 6400.
Import of a country in 2022 was ₹ 7200 cr. and export was ₹ 6000 cr. In 2023, these are increased by 5% but in 2024 these are decreased by 5%. The ratio of amount of import to Export in 2024 is -
Explanation
Import = 7200 x 1.05 x 0.95 = 7182 and export = 6000 x 1.05 x 0.95 = 5985, so the ratio is 7182 : 5985. Note it simplifies to 6 : 5 as well, since both change by the same factor, but the keyed option is the unsimplified one.
If X is husband of Y, P is daughter of X, Z is husband of Q, P is sister of Q and R is son of Z, then the relation of Y to R is -
Explanation
P and Q are sisters, so Q is also the daughter of X and Y. R is Q's son (Z is Q's husband), so Y is R's mother's mother, i.e. maternal grandmother (nani).
If the last two digits of (99^(2n) – 1), where 'n' is natural number, are both zero, then 'n' is -
Explanation
99^2n = 9801^n, and 9801 ends in 01, so 9801^n always ends in 01 and minus 1 gives 00. It holds for every natural n.
Choose the odd one in the following -
Explanation
In SvUt, MpOn and AdCb the capitals are 2 apart (S-U, M-O, A-C) and the small letters are 2 apart backward (v-t, p-n, d-b). In VxYw the capitals V and Y are 3 apart, so it is the odd one.
Consider the given statement followed by two course of actions numbered (I) and (II), and decide which of the suggested course of action/s logically follow/s for the pursuing? Statement : Boeing 787 Dreamliners are facing many technical lacunas. Course of actions : (I) Its flying should be stopped immediately and sent to workshops. (II) Experienced engineers should be appointed for maintenance.
Explanation
As keyed, both courses follow: grounding the planes for repair is a direct response to technical faults, and experienced engineers for maintenance supports the same goal. Some would call (I) too drastic, so this key is debatable.
When 70% of a number 'p' is added to another number 'q', the sum becomes 165% of 'q'. When 60% of the number 'p' is added to another number 'r', then the sum becomes 165% of 'r'. Which number is greatest among these given numbers?
Explanation
0.7p = 0.65q gives q = 1.077p, and 0.6p = 0.65r gives r = 0.923p. So q > p > r and q is the greatest.
Study the given statement and two assumptions (I) and (II). Decide, which of the assumption/s is/are implicit in the given statement. Statement : According to environmentalist, trees can communicate and share nutrients with other trees in the forest. Assumptions : (I) Underneath the earth, everything is connected. (II) Plants share extra nutrients with other plants.
Explanation
Assumption (II) restates the statement's idea that plants share nutrients, so it is implicit. Assumption (I) is a sweeping claim that the statement does not need.
On dividing each of 187, 233 and 279 by 'x', the same remainder is obtained in each case. Maximum value of such number 'x' is -
Explanation
x is the HCF of the differences: 233 - 187 = 46 and 279 - 233 = 46, so the maximum x is 46.
Here, a statement is followed by two arguments. Consider the statement and decide which argument/s is/are strong. Select your answer. Statement : Should the Government allow foreign companies to invest in power projects in India? Argument : (I) Yes, it will decrease the power problem in our country. (II) No, it will be a surrender before foreign interests.
Explanation
Argument (I) gives a concrete benefit directly tied to the question, so it is strong. Argument (II) is a vague emotional claim, not a solid reason, so it is weak.
The following Pie-charts show the percentage of different heads of expenditures of a company in the financial year 2023-24 and 2024-25. The total expenditure was ₹ 400 crores in 2023-24 and ₹ 500 crores in 2024-25. Which are the two heads of expenditure that were increased by same percentage in 2024-25 from the given options?
Explanation
A: 20% of 400 = 80 to 22% of 500 = 110; C: 10% of 400 = 40 to 11% of 500 = 55. Both rise by 37.5 percent, so C and A.
A person deposited ₹ 50,000 for 3 years at 10% rate compounded annually. But he withdrew ₹ 15,000 after completion of one year. How much amount did he receive after 3 years?
Explanation
After year 1: 50,000 x 1.1 = 55,000; withdraw 15,000 leaves 40,000. Then 40,000 x 1.1 x 1.1 = 48,400.
How many triangles are there in the following figure?
Explanation
As keyed, the number of triangles in the figure is 23. Count systematically by size to avoid missing any.
Study the following table and answer the question - Year | Arts | Science | Commerce | Agriculture | Total number of candidates qualified (Percentage of candidates qualified under discipline (in %)) 2020 | 24 | 40 | 19 | 17 | 780 2021 | 27 | 42 | 18 | 13 | 650 2022 | 20 | 45 | 20 | 15 | 620 2023 | 19 | 35 | 27 | 19 | 900 2024 | 18 | 42 | 22 | 18 | 850 The decrease in the number of candidates qualified under Commerce discipline from 2023 to 2024 is -
Explanation
Commerce in 2023 = 27% of 900 = 243; in 2024 = 22% of 850 = 187; decrease = 243 - 187 = 56. Option (1) 69 would come from wrongly using a different pair of values.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit in a row (all facing North), C sits at an extreme end of the row. Only two persons sit between C and F. D sits second to the right of F. E sits third to the right of A. Only one person sits between C and B. Who is sitting to the immediate right of B?
Explanation
Taking C at the left end: F is 4th, D 6th, so A must be 2nd and E 5th (third to A's right), and B is 3rd. The row is C, A, B, F, E, D, so F sits immediately right of B. C at the right end gives no valid arrangement.
Next term of the following number series is - 6, 21, 45, 78, ............
Explanation
The differences are 15, 24, 33, which themselves rise by 9, so the next difference is 42 and the next term is 78 + 42 = 120.
Here, a statement is followed by two conclusions (I) and (II). You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider both the conclusions and decide which of them logically follows - Statement : Electric supply in the upper parts of Kashmir has been shut down due to excessive snowfall in January. Conclusions : (I) People in some parts of India have to face many problems in January. (II) Some parts of Kashmir receive snowfall more than other parts.
Explanation
Power cuts in upper Kashmir from heavy snowfall are a problem for people in part of India (I), and the upper parts getting heavy snowfall implies they get more than other parts (II). So both follow.
In a certain code language, "MURLI" is coded as "ACBAAHABI", "SHYAM" is coded as "AIHBEAAC", then in the same code language "UNIQUE" will be coded as -
Explanation
Each letter is replaced by a fixed letter-group; applying the pattern seen in MURLI and SHYAM to UNIQUE gives option (3), as per the final key. The other options differ in the groups used for the middle letters.
P and Q are two alloys of aluminium and copper prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 7 : 2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If equal quantities of the two alloys are melted to form a third alloy R, then the ratio of aluminium and copper in R is -
Explanation
Take 18 units of each: P has Al 14, Cu 4; Q has Al 7, Cu 11. Total Al = 21, Cu = 15, ratio 21 : 15 = 7 : 5. Option (3) 9 : 5 comes from adding the ratio terms without equalising the totals.
The first restriction endonuclease discovered was -
Explanation
Hind II, isolated from Haemophilus influenzae, was the first restriction endonuclease characterised (1970). Taq polymerase is a heat-stable DNA polymerase, not a restriction enzyme.
Technology Innovation Group on 6G (T1G-6G) is constituted under the -
Explanation
The Technology Innovation Group on 6G was set up under the Department of Telecommunications, the department responsible for telecom policy and technology. There is no Department of Defence Communications in the Government of India.
Which of the following purine bases are present in DNA? (a) Adenine (b) Guanine (c) Thymine (d) Cytosine
Explanation
Adenine and guanine are the two purines (double-ring bases) in DNA. Thymine and cytosine are pyrimidines (single-ring), so options with (c) or (d) are wrong.
Celiac disease is triggered by a sensitivity to which of the following proteins?
Explanation
Celiac disease is an autoimmune reaction to gluten, found in wheat, barley and rye. Casein is the milk protein linked with milk allergy, not celiac disease.
Which one of the following option is correct for DURGA-II developed by DRDO?
Explanation
DURGA-II (Directionally Unrestricted Ray-Gun Array) is a 100 kW-class laser-based directed energy weapon being developed by DRDO. It is not a missile system, which rules out options (3) and (4).
Which of the following is the seventh stealth frigate of the Indian Navy Project 17A?
Explanation
Mahendragiri is the seventh and last ship of the Project 17A (Nilgiri class) stealth frigates. The earlier ones include Nilgiri, Udaygiri, Himgiri, Taragiri, Dunagiri and Vindhyagiri.
RNA interference (RNAi), used in pest-resistant GM crops like Bt cotton, works by -
Explanation
RNAi silences a gene by degrading or blocking a specific mRNA, so the target protein is not made. It reduces, not enhances, gene expression, which is why option (2) is wrong.
Consider the following statements related to objectives of "Science Parks" in Rajasthan – Statement (A) : To help in growth of science and technology awareness Statement (B) : To make learning of science for visitors a joy Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Both stated aims, spreading science and technology awareness and making science learning enjoyable for visitors, are objectives of science parks, so both statements are correct as per the key.
Which of the following option is correctly correlated? Vitamin | Chemical Name | Deficiency Disease
Explanation
Vitamin B6 is pyridoxine, and its deficiency causes convulsions. In (1) thiamine is B1 (beri-beri), not B2; B2 is riboflavin (cheilosis); vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy.
Which of the following is the best description of 'It is the enabling technologies allowing computation to be performed at the edge of the network, on downstream data on behalf of cloud services and upstream data on behalf of IoT services'?
Explanation
This is the definition of edge computing: processing data near the network edge, close to where it is generated. Cloud computing processes it in central data centres instead.
What is "Bulimia"?
Explanation
Bulimia (bulimia nervosa) is an eating disorder marked by episodes of excessive eating followed by purging. It is a psychological disorder, not an infection or a chromosomal disorder.
"UNNATI" is a training program on -
Explanation
UNNATI (Unispace Nanosatellite Assembly and Training by ISRO) is a capacity-building programme on nanosatellite assembly and building. The other bodies and topics listed are not linked with it.
When a small amount of a suitable impurity is added to the pure elemental semiconductor, the conductivity of the semiconductor is increased manifold. Such materials are known as -
Explanation
A semiconductor doped with a suitable impurity is an extrinsic semiconductor. The impurity atoms themselves are called dopants, but the doped material is the extrinsic semiconductor; pure ones are intrinsic.
Consider the following in reference to the MS Word and the select the wrong pair -
Explanation
Ctrl + Z is Undo, not Replace (Replace is Ctrl + H). The other three pairs are correct.
Which of the following ecological pyramid(s) can never be inverted? (a) Pyramid of numbers (b) Pyramid of biomass (c) Pyramid of energy Correct option is -
Explanation
Energy flow loses energy at each trophic level (about 90 percent), so the pyramid of energy is always upright. Pyramids of numbers (tree-insect) and biomass (aquatic ecosystems) can be inverted, so (b) is wrong.
निम्नलिखित में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द परस्पर पर्यायवाची नहीं हैं?
Explanation
Arkaja and Suryaja both mean the river Yamuna, but Sindhuja means Lakshmi (born of the ocean), so option (4) is not a set of synonyms. The other options are true synonym sets for bird, tooth and daughter.
निम्नलिखित में से पूर्वकालिक क्रिया का उदाहरण है –
Explanation
A absolutive (purvakalik) verb shows an action completed before the main verb, formed by adding 'kar/karke' to the root. In 'nahakar bhojan kiya', bathing precedes eating. The other sentences have no such verb.
निम्नलिखित में से अंग्रेजी पारिभाषिक शब्द के समानार्थक हिन्दी शब्द की दृष्टि से असंगत विकल्प है –
Explanation
The standard Hindi term for 'impose' is 'adhiropit karna' (to levy/enforce), not 'paribaddh karna', so option (1) is the mismatch. Implicit = nihit, Impeachment = mahabhiyog and Implement = paripalan karna are standard.
निम्नलिखित में से कार्यालयी पत्र से संबंधित असंगत कथन है –
Explanation
An office letter (karyalay patra) is formal government correspondence, not informal, so statement (1) is the incorrect one. The other statements correctly describe its uses.
निम्नलिखित में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द शुद्ध हैं?
Explanation
Audarya, pashchattap and uttarayan are all correctly spelt. The other options contain errors; the correct forms are paitrik, writtant (vritant), sannidhya and shrinkhala.
निम्नलिखित में से सामासिक पद और उसके विग्रह की दृष्टि से त्रुटिपूर्ण विकल्प है –
Explanation
'Deshbhakti' resolves as 'desh ki bhakti' (possessive tatpurush), not 'desh se bhakti', so option (3) is the faulty one.
निम्नलिखित में से 'अमृत' का अर्थ नहीं है –
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. A likely reason is that 'अमृत' has several dictionary senses (including gold, mercury and food grain), so more than one option could be argued.
'अन्' उपसर्ग युक्त शब्द नहीं है –
Explanation
Anang (without limb), anapt (not obtained) and anichchhuk carry the negating prefix 'an'. 'Anapach' is not treated as a word with the prefix 'an' in the key, so it is the answer.
निम्न में से किस विकल्प में संधि सही नहीं हुई है?
Explanation
By yan sandhi, anu + ikshan = anvikshan (u becomes v), not 'anvekshan', so option (3) is wrong. The other three are correct yan sandhi examples.
निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति और उसके अर्थ की दृष्टि से असंगत विकल्प है –
Explanation
'Ulte bans bareli ko' means doing a pointless or reversed thing (carrying coals to Newcastle), not outwitting someone with his own trick, so option (1) is mismatched.
Choose the appropriate one word for - 'A cure for all diseases.'
Explanation
Panacea means a remedy for all diseases or problems. An antidote counteracts a specific poison, so it is not a cure for all diseases.
Choose the appropriate one word for - 'A substance that acts against the effects of poison/disease' is -
Explanation
An antidote is a substance that counteracts a poison or disease. A cemetery is a burial ground, an anarchist rejects government, and a bigot is an intolerant person.
Select the correct form of the tense for the blank from the options given below - Who .......... all the cherries?
Explanation
'Who' takes a singular verb, and the present perfect needs the past participle: 'has eaten'. 'Have ate' and 'had ate' wrongly use the past form 'ate'.
Choose the option that will take the word 'ante' as prefix -
Explanation
The prefix 'ante-' means before, so 'antenatal' means before birth. 'Anti-' (not 'ante-') goes with social, war and matic (antisocial, antiwar), which is the trap here.
Choose the appropriate synonym of the word 'Commensurate' -
Explanation
Commensurate means corresponding in size or degree, so 'proportionate' is its synonym. Contemplate means to think about deeply.
Choose the most appropriate Article or Determiner where necessary to fill in the blanks - He ran into ................ difficulty and this is not ............. difficulty which will quickly disappear.
Explanation
Per the key, the first blank takes no article (difficulty as an uncountable noun, 'ran into difficulty') and the second takes 'a' before the countable 'difficulty which will quickly disappear'.
Select the appropriate preposition for the blank from the options given below - A lot of books are lying about ............. the floor.
Explanation
Books lying on a surface take the preposition 'on': 'lying about on the floor'. 'At' and 'into' do not describe position on a surface.
Choose the correct connective to fill in the blank - Produce more food, ............. you will perish.
Explanation
'Or' means 'otherwise' here: produce more food, otherwise you will perish. 'And' would wrongly suggest perishing is the result of producing food.
Choose the appropriate Indirect transformation of the given Direct statement - "So help me, God!" he cried, "I will never steal again".
Explanation
The exclamation 'So help me, God!' is an oath calling God as witness, so it is reported as 'called upon God to witness his resolve never to steal again'. Option (3) keeps 'will' unchanged and drops the oath.
Choose the appropriate Passive form of the given Active Voice question - When will you return the book?
Explanation
The passive of 'When will you return the book?' is 'When will the book be returned?' (the agent 'you' is dropped as general). Option (1) changes the question to ask who, which alters the meaning.
Questions: Rajasthan Public Service Commission. Answers: RPSC final answer key. Explanations: TopKaro.