Held 28 January 2023Booklet WEPO-32, paper code 11Answers from RPSC's final answer key (10 January 2024)
Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (Rebellion) (Leader)
Explanation
Kanhu (with Sidhu) led the Santhal rebellion of 1855, not the Kol rising; the Kol revolt (1831-32) was led by leaders such as Buddhu Bhagat. Birsa led the Munda Ulgulan and Ali Musaliyar the Mappila (Mopalah) revolt of 1921.
"He started modernisation of military apparatus and introduced Enfield rifles in the army." Who was he ?
Explanation
Lord Hardinge (Governor-General 1844-48) modernised the army and introduced the Enfield rifle. The greased cartridges of the Enfield rifle later triggered the Revolt of 1857 under Canning, who is the strongest distractor.
Who among the following was not associated with Mahatma Gandhi during Champaran Satyagraha ?
Explanation
Kripalani, Rajkumar Shukla (who invited Gandhi) and Rajendra Prasad worked with Gandhi in Champaran (1917). Sachidanand Sinha, a Bihar leader and later interim President of the Constituent Assembly, was not part of that team.
Choose the correct chronological order of the following events : (i) August Declaration (ii) MacDonald Award (iii) August Proposal (iv) Wavell Plan Code :
Explanation
August Declaration (1917), MacDonald (Communal) Award (1932), August Offer (1940), Wavell Plan (1945). Option 3 fails because it puts the 1932 Award before the 1917 Declaration.
Who among the following founded the Bhil Seva Mandal ?
Explanation
Amritlal Vithaldas Thakkar (Thakkar Bapa) founded the Bhil Seva Mandal in Dungarpur in 1932. Govind Guru founded the Sampa Sabha and Tejawat led the Eki movement, which are the usual confusions.
The State Reorganisation Commission recommended –
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. The SRC (Fazl Ali, 1953-55) recommended 16 States and 3 centrally administered areas, so none of the four options is correct, which is the likely reason for deletion.
Who was the first Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission ?
Explanation
Homi J. Bhabha was the first Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission, set up in 1948 (he also headed the Department of Atomic Energy from 1954). Bhatnagar was the first Director General of CSIR, the usual distractor.
How many members, out of the total number of Central Legislative Assembly, were to be elected as according to the provisions of Government of India Act, 1919 ?
Explanation
The 1919 Act made the Central Legislative Assembly bicameral with 144 members, of whom 104 were elected, i.e. about 5/7. The Council of State had 60 members, 34 of them elected.
Which article of the Constitution of India mentions that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women ?
Explanation
Article 39(d), a Directive Principle, provides equal pay for equal work for both men and women. Article 39(a) is the right to an adequate means of livelihood, the nearest distractor.
Consider the fundamental duties mentioned literally in Article 51 A of the Constitution of India : I. to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom. II. to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. III. to organize agriculture and animal husbandry. Select the correct answer using the code : Code :
Explanation
Article 51A(b) and 51A(d) contain duties I and II. Organising agriculture and animal husbandry is a Directive Principle (Article 48), not a fundamental duty, so III is wrong.
Read the following statements carefully in reference to the Constitution of India : Statement 1 : There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Statement 2 : President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Select the correct option among the following :
Explanation
Article 74(1), as amended by the 42nd and 44th Amendments, contains both provisions: the President acts on the Council's advice but may ask it to reconsider once, and must act on the advice given after reconsideration.
Who among the following said that – "There is no provision in the Constitution which in so many words lays down that the President shall be bound to act in accordance with the advice of his Council of Ministers."
Explanation
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, then President, made this remark (in his 1960 address to the Indian Law Institute). Ambedkar, by contrast, held in the Constituent Assembly that the President is a constitutional head bound by advice.
When did the National Integration Council declare its objectives for the first time ?
Explanation
The National Integration Council (set up in 1961) declared its objectives at its 1968 meeting, as per the keyed answer.
Which among the following is not a correctly matched pair ? (Case) (Year of Judgement of Supreme Court)
Explanation
S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (the First Judges case on judicial appointments) was decided in 1981, not 2001. The other three years (Anil Yadav 1982, Vishaka 1997, ADM Jabalpur 1976) are correct.
According to the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Modification of Provisions in their Application to the Scheduled Areas) Rules, 2011, consider the following statements regarding the powers and rights of Panchayati Raj Institutions : Statement (I) : The work of acquisition of land will be done by the government only after consultation with the Gram Sabha. Statement (II) : Except for money lending, intoxication control and the power of summary ejectment of trespassers, all the powers related to maintaining law and order shall be exercised by the Panchayat Samiti. Select the correct option from the following :
Explanation
Under the 2011 Scheduled Areas rules (PESA-based), consultation with the Gram Sabha precedes land acquisition, so I is true. Statement II is not accepted by the key; the rules give the Gram Sabha/Gram Panchayat a role in matters like money lending and intoxicant control, so the 'all other powers with the Samiti' wording is the likely flaw.
Which of the following articles does not require ratification by the legislatures of less than one-half of states to amend them ?
Explanation
Under Article 368(2) proviso, amendments to Articles 54 (election of President), 55 (manner of election) and 73 (extent of Union executive power) need ratification by half of the states. Article 53 (executive power of the Union) is not in the list.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 200 of the Constitution of India : I. The Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly is presented to the Governor. II. The Governor shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom. III. The Governor assents to the Bill or withholds assent or reserves it for the consideration of the President. Select the correct answer using the code : Code :
Explanation
Article 200 says that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature is presented to the Governor, he declares that he assents, withholds assent, or reserves it for the President's consideration. All three statements describe this.
If any question arises as to the age of a judge of the High Court in India, who decides it ?
Explanation
Article 217(3): the question is decided by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, and his decision is final. The retirement age of a High Court judge is 62.
By which Act the District Collector was made the Chairman of the District Disaster Management Authority ?
Explanation
The Disaster Management Act, 2005 created the NDMA, SDMAs and District Disaster Management Authorities. In a DDMA the District Collector (Magistrate) is the chairperson.
Read the following statements carefully in reference of Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission : Statement (I) : The State Human Rights Commission is an autonomous high power human rights watch body which derives its authority from the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Statement (II) : Its autonomy lies in the method of appointment of its Chairperson and Members, their fixed tenure and the financial autonomy. Statement (III) : A distinguished jurist can be appointed as Chairperson. Select correct option among the following :
Explanation
The Commission is a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and its autonomy rests on the appointment method, fixed tenure and financial independence. The Chairperson must be a retired Chief Justice or Judge of a High Court (not merely a jurist), so III is false.
Which of the following article of Constitution of India authorise municipalities to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees ?
Explanation
Article 243X empowers a State Legislature to authorise municipalities to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees. Article 243W deals with powers and responsibilities of municipalities, 243Y with Finance Commission and 243Z with audit of accounts.
Read the following statements carefully : Statement 1 : Rajasthan Information Commission (Management) Regulations, 2007 was framed under Section 15(4) of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Statement 2 : The Rajasthan Information Commission has the authority to impose penalty of ₹ 250 per day and a maximum of ₹ 50,000 on the Public Information Officer. Select the correct option among the following :
Explanation
Section 20 of the RTI Act sets the penalty at Rs 250 per day up to a maximum of Rs 25,000, not Rs 50,000, so statement 2 is false. Statement 1 is accepted as true by the key.
In which chapter of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, provisions related to the State Human Rights Commission have been made ?
Explanation
Chapter V (sections 21-29) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 deals with State Human Rights Commissions. Chapter II covers the National Commission.
Consider the following statements : I. According to Article 163 there shall be Council of Ministers to aid and advice the Governor. II. According Article 164(1) the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor. III. According Article 164(1), the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. Select the correct answer using the code. Code :
Explanation
Article 163 provides the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, and Article 164(1) says the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers hold office during the Governor's pleasure. All three statements are correct.
Which of the following is not included in the obligation of the public authority as per Section 4 of the Right to Information Act 2005 ?
Explanation
Section 4(1)(b) requires publication within 120 days and section 4(3) requires the information to be updated every year, not every month. The monthly updating in option 2 is therefore not an obligation.
Which of the following option is not mentioned in Section 8 (1) of the Right to Information Act 2005 which contains that there shall be no obligation to give any citizen information ?
Explanation
Section 8(1) exempts information on legislative privilege (c), information received in confidence from a foreign government (b) and information affecting sovereignty and integrity (a). Hampering the 'process of development of the State' is not an exemption ground.
Which of the following is not correctly paired ? (Article of the Constitution of India) (Provision)
Explanation
Article 253 gives Parliament power to legislate to give effect to international treaties and agreements; establishment of additional courts is under Article 247. The other three pairs are correct.
Ozark plateau is located in –
Explanation
The Ozark Plateau lies in the south-central USA, mainly in Missouri and Arkansas, with parts of Oklahoma and Illinois. It is a highland between the Mississippi and Arkansas rivers.
In which country the 'COP 27 – United Nations Climate Change Conference' was organized in November 2022 ?
Explanation
COP27 was held at Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt, in November 2022, where the Loss and Damage fund was agreed. COP28 followed in the UAE (Dubai) in 2023.
"Global-200" refers to –
Explanation
Global 200 is a list of the most outstanding and distinctive ecoregions of the world, drawn up by the WWF for conservation priority. The other options have nothing to do with ecology.
Which of the following two ports are connected with North Pacific Ocean Route ?
Explanation
The North Pacific route links North American west-coast ports such as San Francisco with East Asian ports such as Kobe in Japan. Halifax-London, Montevideo-Lisbon and New York-Luanda are Atlantic routes.
Identify the city which is headquarters of the world famous automobile manufacturer company 'General Motors' (GM) from following.
Explanation
General Motors is headquartered in Detroit, Michigan, the traditional centre of the US automobile industry (nicknamed 'Motor City'). New York and Boston are known for finance and education, not car making.
Dhaula – Dhar range lies in –
Explanation
The Dhauladhar range in Himachal Pradesh is part of the Lesser (Middle) Himalaya, as are the Pir Panjal and Mussoorie ranges. The Greater Himalaya (Himadri) lies to its north.
The Koraput mine located in Odisha is famous for which of the following mineral ?
Explanation
Koraput (Panchpatmali deposits) in Odisha is known for bauxite, the ore of aluminium. Odisha's iron ore comes mainly from Keonjhar, Sundargarh and Mayurbhanj.
Which of the following National Waterways is located in the Zuari River of Goa state ?
Explanation
National Waterway 111 is the Zuari river waterway in Goa, declared under the National Waterways Act 2016. The Mandovi river is NW-68.
Budge-Budge, Samastipur and Katihar are centres of
Explanation
Budge Budge (West Bengal), Samastipur and Katihar (Bihar) are well-known jute-mill centres in the Ganga plain. Wheel and Axle plant is at Bengaluru, not these towns.
The Khangchendzonga National Park has been given the status of World Heritage Site by UNESCO in which category in the year 2016 ?
Explanation
In 2016 UNESCO inscribed Khangchendzonga National Park (Sikkim) as India's first 'Mixed' World Heritage Site, for both natural and cultural values. UNESCO has no 'Historical' category.
Which of the following is correctly arranged in descending order in terms of average annual rainfall ?
Explanation
Rainfall in Rajasthan falls from the south-east to the north-west: Udaipur (about 60 cm) > Pali > Bikaner > Jaisalmer (about 15-20 cm). The other orders put drier districts such as Ganganagar or Bikaner above wetter ones.
In which district of Rajasthan Menar village is located, which is popularly known as 'Bird Village' ?
Explanation
Menar village in Vallabhnagar tehsil of Udaipur district is called the 'Bird Village' for its wetlands that host migratory birds; it was designated a Ramsar site in 2025. Bharatpur is known for Keoladeo, not Menar.
Siddhmukh project gets its water from river
Explanation
The Siddhmukh (Rajasthan Canal Feeder) project in Hanumangarh/Churu gets water from the Ravi-Beas waters through Bhakra canal system. Jakham, Narmada and Parvati are not its sources.
Which of the following is a famous mine of rock phosphate ?
Explanation
Jhamar-Kotra near Udaipur is Rajasthan's famous rock phosphate mine, run by Rajasthan State Mines and Minerals Ltd (RSMML). Bidasar is linked with other minerals, not rock phosphate.
As per Census 2011, how many cities and towns were there in Rajasthan with population one lakh and above ?
Explanation
As per the keyed answer, Census 2011 recorded 30 cities and towns in Rajasthan with a population of one lakh or more (Class I towns).
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding proportional taxation ?
Explanation
A proportional tax takes the same percentage from everyone, so a poor person pays the same rate as a rich one; it is not based on ability to pay, which is the principle of progressive taxation. Hence option 4 is incorrect.
Which of the following is not an instrument of fiscal policy ?
Explanation
Budget, taxes and public expenditure are fiscal instruments of the government. Credit availability is controlled by the central bank through monetary policy.
Who gave the definition, "Inflation is too much money chasing too few goods." ?
Explanation
The definition 'too much money chasing too few goods' is credited to Coulbourn. Hawtrey described inflation as an issue of too much money, but the phrase is attributed to Coulbourn.
As per NSO first advance estimates of 2021-22 in India the share of services in Gross value added in percent was
Explanation
In the NSO first advance estimates for 2021-22 services accounted for about 53 per cent of India's GVA, industry about 28 per cent and agriculture about 18-19 per cent.
Which of the following is a government food security measure adopted to prevent distress during COVID-19 ?
Explanation
As keyed, Ujjwala Yojana (free LPG cylinders) was part of the COVID-19 relief package under the PM Garib Kalyan Yojana. PM-KISAN, Jan Dhan cash transfers and Palanhar are income support, not food security measures.
Consider the following statements about Rajasthan Economy : (A) The sex-ratio in urban region has improved by 24 females per thousand males between year 2001 to 2011. (B) The literacy rate has continuously witnessed an upward trend from 1961 to 2011. Choose the correct option :
Explanation
Per the key both are true: Rajasthan's urban sex ratio rose from 900 (2001) to 924 (2011), and literacy has risen in every census since 1961.
Atal Bhu Jal Scheme was launched on 1st April, 2020 by Government of India with the assistance of
Explanation
Atal Bhujal Yojana (Atal Jal) for community-led groundwater management is a Rs 6,000 crore central scheme with the World Bank (half the cost as loan). Rajasthan is one of the seven states covered.
Match the following correctly with regards to the share of various sub-sectors of agriculture in Rajasthan's Gross State Value Added (GSVA) in year 2021-22 at current prices : List – I | List – II A. Crops i. 0.37% B. Livestock ii. 7.44% C. Forestry and Logging iii. 45.94% D. Fishing iv. 46.25% Select the correct option : Codes : A B C D
Explanation
Livestock (46.25%) is slightly larger than crops (45.94%) in Rajasthan's agricultural GSVA, followed by forestry and logging (7.44%) and fishing (0.37%). This gives A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i.
During financial year 2020-21 in Rajasthan engineering goods, textiles, handicrafts, metal & chemicals and allied accounted for what percent of exports from the state ?
Explanation
As per the Rajasthan Economic Review, these product groups together made up more than 50 percent of the state's exports in 2020-21.
As per 2021-22 (AE) at 2011-12 constant prices, the contribution of which of the following sub-sectors of service sector in Gross State Value Added (GSVA) of Rajasthan is the highest ?
Explanation
As keyed, trade, hotels and restaurants is the largest sub-sector of Rajasthan's services GSVA in 2021-22 (AE) at constant prices.
Consider the following statements regarding Mukhyamantri Vridhjan Samman Pension Yojana : (A) The whole burden of pension is borne by the state government (B) The rate of pension for person aged 75 years or above is ₹ 750 per month. Choose the correct option :
Explanation
Only (A) is true: the state government bears the full pension cost. Statement (B) is wrong because the rate for those aged 75 and above was higher than Rs 750 per month.
Which of the following is not true regarding eligibility for Palanhar Yojana of Rajasthan ?
Explanation
As keyed, the residence condition of two years in Rajasthan is the option that does not match the scheme's rules (the requirement is a shorter or different residence period). The other options match the eligibility conditions.
What is the percent contribution of Rajasthan state to the total crude oil production of the country as per Economic Review 2021-22 ?
Explanation
Rajasthan (Barmer-Jalore basin, Mangala field) contributes about 20 percent of India's crude oil production according to the keyed answer. Gujarat and Assam are the other major producers.
Under the Rights of Persons with Disability Act 2016 implemented by Government of India, the number of categories of disability have been increased to
Explanation
The RPwD Act 2016 raised the recognised disability categories from 7 (1995 Act) to 21. Examples of new ones are acid attack victims, dwarfism, Parkinson's and thalassemia.
Which of the following statement is not true about Rajasthan Indira Gandhi Matritva Poshan Yojana ?
Explanation
As keyed, the statement that Rs 5,000 is paid in 5 phases is not correct; the payment is made in a different number of instalments. The other statements match the scheme's design.
Read the following statements carefully – Statement-1: The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was set-up in 1986 to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. Statement-2: According to National Crime Records Bureau Report 2021 maximum theft cases were reported in Delhi (1,98,133 cases) followed by Jaipur (7,860 cases). Select the correct option among the following :
Explanation
NCRB was set up in 1986 as a central repository of crime data, and the NCRB 2021 report listed Delhi first for theft cases among cities with Jaipur next, so both statements are true per the key.
The duration of Rajasthan Investment Promotion Scheme (RIPS) 2022 is –
Explanation
RIPS-2022 is in force from October 2022 to March 2027, a period of about five years. The other options give the wrong start or end dates.
Which among the following institutions has released the "2022 in Nine charts" report ?
Explanation
The World Bank published '2022 in Nine Charts' summarising the global economic and development situation of the year. WHO, WTO and WMO publish health, trade and weather reports respectively.
Read the following statements carefully : Statement-1 : According to TIME Magazine, Gautam Adani, Karuna Nundy and Khurram Parvez are among the 100 most influential people of 2022. Statement-2 : The TIME magazine's 100 most influential people list has been divided into 6 major categories – Leader, Titan, Pioneer, Artist, Icon and Innovator. Select the correct option among the following :
Explanation
TIME's 2022 list of the 100 most influential people included Gautam Adani, Karuna Nundy and Khurram Parvez, and it is grouped into six categories: Leaders, Titans, Pioneers, Artists, Icons and Innovators. Both statements are true.
The maximum amount payable per month to the eligible candidate under Chief Minister Ekal Nari Samman Pension Yojana is –
Explanation
Under the Mukhyamantri Ekal Nari Samman Pension Yojana the maximum monthly pension is Rs 1,500 (for the oldest age group). The larger amounts are far above the pension rates.
At which of the following grounds was the final match of the FIFA World Cup 2022 played ?
Explanation
The 2022 FIFA World Cup final (Argentina beat France on penalties, 18 December 2022) was played at Lusail Iconic Stadium in Qatar. Al Bayt hosted the opening match.
About how many meetings will India host during its Presidency of G-20 ?
Explanation
India holds the G20 Presidency from 1 December 2022 and planned about 200 meetings across the country. The numbers 25-100 understate the plan.
Read the following statements carefully : Statement-1 : ISRO's PSLV-C54 has successfully launched EOS-06 satellite along with Eight Nano-satellites into two different SSPOs. Statement-2: The mission was accomplished from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR on 10th December 2022. Select the correct option among the following :
Explanation
PSLV-C54 launched EOS-06 (Oceansat-3) and eight nano-satellites into two sun-synchronous orbits from Sriharikota, but on 26 November 2022, not 10 December. So only statement 1 is true.
Which among the following has been selected for Sahitya Akademi Yuva Award 2022 in Hindi ?
Explanation
The Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2022 in Hindi went to Bhagwant Anmol for the novel 'Pramey'. The other titles are by other authors and were not the winning work.
Who among the following is presently (as on 1st December, 2022) the Secretary of State of United States ?
Explanation
Antony Blinken has been US Secretary of State since January 2021. Kamala Harris is Vice President, Janet Yellen is Treasury Secretary and Lloyd Austin is Defense Secretary.
A statement is given below followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement. Statement : A warning in a train compartment "To stop train, pull the chain". Penalty for improper use ₹ 1000." Assumptions. I. Some people misuse the stop chain. II. On certain occasions, people may want to stop a running train. Give answer :
Explanation
The penalty implies people might misuse the chain (I), and the instruction to pull it implies people may need to stop a moving train (II), so both are implicit.
A statement is given below followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument. Statement : Should foreign films be banned in India ? Arguments : I. Yes, they depict an alien culture which adversely affects our values. II. No, foreign films are of a high artistic standard.
Explanation
Argument I is a vague, unproven generalisation and II only praises artistic quality without addressing the question of a ban, so neither is strong.
Below are given two statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the given statements true and decide which of the given conclusion/s logically follows from the given two statements : Statements : 1. Some students are teachers. 2. All teachers are boys. Conclusions : I. All students are boys. II. Some boys are students. III. Some boys are teachers. IV. All teachers are students.
Explanation
Some students are teachers and all teachers are boys, so some students are boys (II) and some boys are teachers (III). I and IV do not follow because nothing is said about all students or all teachers being students.
Assume following statement is true. On the basis of statement decide which of the courses of action logically follows it. Statement : People residing in some tribal areas are far from education. Courses of action : I. A mass awareness programme must be initiated in these areas. II. Social workers should be entrusted to educate them.
Explanation
A mass awareness programme directly addresses the problem, so I follows. Handing the whole task to social workers (II) is a specific, unjustified prescription that does not necessarily follow.
The number of squares in the given figure is
Explanation
Counting all the squares of different sizes formed by the lines of the figure gives 9, as per the key.
The next term in the given series is – 2/3, 4/8, 11/18, 37/38, ?
Explanation
Denominators follow x2+2 (3, 8, 18, 38, 78) and numerators follow x1+2, x2+3, x3+4, x4+5 (2, 4, 11, 37, 153), so the next term is 153/78.
The missing term in the given series is – AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL
Explanation
First letters go +1, +2, +3, +4 (A, B, D, G, K); second letters go -3, -4, -5, -6 (Y, V, R, M, G); third letters go +2 (D, F, H, J, L). So the missing term is GMJ.
Which one set of letter when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? _bc_ca_aba_c_ca
Explanation
Filling a, b, c, b, b gives abcbcacababcbca, which is the repeating blocks abc, bca, cab, abc, bca (each shifted by one letter).
Which of the following option will replace the question mark ? MILD : NROW :: BACK : ?
Explanation
Each letter is replaced by its opposite in the alphabet (M-N, I-R, L-O, D-W). So B-Y, A-Z, C-X, K-P gives YZXP.
Choose odd one out term among the following series : 275, 396, 385, 891, 932
Explanation
275, 396, 385 and 891 are all multiples of 11 (11 x 25, 36, 35, 81); 932 is not.
A is son of B while B and C are the sisters to one another. D is the mother of C. If E is the son of D, which one of the following statements is correct ?
Explanation
D is the mother of both B and C, so E is B's brother and therefore A's maternal uncle (mama). C is A's maternal aunt, D is A's maternal grandmother.
Select a figure from the four alternatives which when placed on the blank space (marked as ?) of given figure (Q) would complete the pattern.
Explanation
The correct figure completes the symmetric pattern of the four cells; option (1) is the keyed answer.
If a = √5 and b = √3, then (a+b)/(a−b) will be equal to –
Explanation
Multiply by (a+b): (a+b)²/(a²−b²) = (8 + 2√15)/2 = 4 + √15 = 4 + ab.
If there are two groups containing 30 and 20 observations and having 50 and 60 as arithmetic means respectively, then the combined arithmetic mean of two groups is :
Explanation
Combined mean = (30x50 + 20x60)/50 = 2700/50 = 54. The simple average 55 is wrong because the groups are of unequal size.
A and B are two alloys of copper and zinc prepared by mixing these metals in the ratio 7:3 and 7:5 respectively. If equal amount of both the alloys are melted together to form a third alloy C, then the ratio of copper and zinc in C is
Explanation
Take 120 units of each: copper = 84 + 70 = 154, zinc = 36 + 50 = 86, ratio 154:86 = 77:43.
If the sum of three consecutive positive numbers is more than the middle number by 130, then greater number among these is :
Explanation
Let numbers be n−1, n, n+1: sum 3n = n + 130, so n = 65 and the greatest number is 66. (65 is the middle number, the likely trap.)
In a class, the number of boys is more than number of girls by 10% of the total strength of the class. The ratio of number of boys to girls is –
Explanation
With total 100, boys − girls = 10 and boys + girls = 100, so boys = 55 and girls = 45, ratio 11:9.
The compound interest (in rounded off) on ₹ 4,000 for 3 years at 3% for first year, 4% for second year and 5% for third year, will be
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. Likely reason: the amount is about ₹4,499 while the interest is only about ₹499, so the options are ambiguous or wrong.
A bucket contains 2 litres more water when it is filled 80% in comparison when it is filled 66 2/3 %. What is the capacity of bucket ?
Explanation
80% − 66 2/3% = 13 1/3% = 2/15 of capacity = 2 litres, so capacity = 15 litres.
The pie graph given below shows the breakup of construction expense of a house. (total cost 30,00,000) The amount spent on labour exceed the amount spent on steel by :
Explanation
Labour is 90 degrees and steel 54 degrees, a difference of 36 degrees = 36/360 = 10% of total cost.
To hear a distinct echo, the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least
Explanation
The human ear retains a sound for about 0.1 s, so an echo is heard distinctly only if it arrives at least 0.1 s later (obstacle at least about 17 m away).
The bandwidth required for commercial telephonic communication (speech signals) is
Explanation
Speech for telephony is carried in roughly 300 Hz to 3100 Hz, a bandwidth of about 2800 Hz. 4.2 MHz is the TV video bandwidth.
Which of the following is not a measuring unit of processing speed of computers ?
Explanation
MHz (clock speed), MIPS (million instructions per second) and MFLOPS (million floating-point operations per second) measure processor speed; MOFS is not a standard unit.
SMTP in networking meant for
Explanation
SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol used to send email between servers. Option (3) differs only by 'Transport', which is wrong.
How many satellites were launched by ISRO using LVM3 rocket in October, 2022 ?
Explanation
On 23 October 2022, LVM3-M2 placed 36 OneWeb broadband satellites in orbit; it was the first commercial launch of LVM3.
Which of the following is a surface-to-surface missile ?
Explanation
Pralay is a short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile. Akash is surface-to-air, Rudram is an air-to-surface anti-radiation missile and Astra is air-to-air.
The developer of 'BRAHMOS' missile, M/s Brahmos Aerospace Private Limited (BAPL) is a joint venture of India and
Explanation
BrahMos Aerospace is a joint venture of India's DRDO and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya; the name comes from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
When the one dimension of a material is reduced to nano range while other two dimensions remain large, then the resulting structure is –
Explanation
One nano-scale dimension gives a quantum well (a thin film). Two nano dimensions give a quantum wire and three give a quantum dot.
Which of the following is an auto-immune disease ?
Explanation
In rheumatoid arthritis the immune system attacks the body's own joint tissue. Hepatitis-B and filariasis are infections, and type 2 diabetes is metabolic (type 1 is the autoimmune one).
On an average, urea excreted by a healthy adult human per day is
Explanation
A healthy adult excretes about 25-30 g of urea per day in urine, the main nitrogenous waste of protein breakdown.
Maximum prescribed concentration of copper in drinking water is
Explanation
The key gives 3 ppm. Drinking-water standards set a low limit for copper (BIS and WHO limits are only a few mg/L), so the large values 8, 12 and 15 ppm are clearly too high.
What was the first commercially grown, genetically engineered food crop approved for human consumption ?
Explanation
The Flavr Savr tomato, engineered for longer shelf life, was approved in the USA in 1994 as the first GM food crop.
How many districts of Rajasthan have been included under National Horticulture Mission ?
Explanation
As per the key, 24 districts of Rajasthan are covered under the National Horticulture Mission (centrally sponsored scheme for horticulture development).
Which of the following food groups is the main source of carotenoids ?
Explanation
Carotenoids are plant pigments found in coloured fruits and vegetables such as carrot, papaya and spinach; beta-carotene is converted to vitamin A.
Which of the following artificial sweetners has the highest sweetness value in comparison to cane sugar ?
Explanation
Alitame is about 2000 times sweeter than sucrose, far more than sucralose (~600x), saccharin (~300-500x) or aspartame (~180-200x).
उचित संधियुक्त शब्द है –
Explanation
अनु + एषण = अन्वेषण is correct (yan sandhi). Correct forms of the others: षट् + यंत्र = षड्यंत्र, लघु + उत्तर = लघूत्तर, सत् + मति = सन्मति.
'हाथी के पाँव में सबका पाँव' लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ है –
Explanation
The proverb means that one big effort covers many small ones, just as an elephant's footprint can contain the prints of all other animals.
'प्रकृत' का विलोम है –
Explanation
The antonym of प्रकृत (natural, real) is अप्रकृत (unnatural), formed with the negating prefix अ-. सुकृत means a good deed, not an opposite.
कौन सा शब्द 'इच्छा' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है ?
Explanation
आकांक्षा, मनोरथ and स्पृहा all mean wish or desire; मनोज is a name of Kamdev (the god of love), not a synonym.
निम्नलिखित में अशुद्ध शब्द है :
Explanation
The correct word is मनगढ़ंत (made up by the mind), so मनघड़ंत is wrong. The others are correctly spelt.
शुद्ध वाक्य है –
Explanation
The keyed sentence (2) is grammatically correct; the others contain redundancy or faulty usage (e.g. repeated 'प्रकार', 'कानों में सुनाई पड़ी').
किस वाक्य में पूर्वकालिक क्रिया रूप प्रयुक्त है ?
Explanation
A purvakalik kriya is formed by adding 'कर' to the verb root and shows an action completed before the main one: नहाकर (having bathed) before पढ़ाई करेगा.
'उँगली पकड़ते पहुँचा पकड़ना', मुहावरे का उपयुक्त भावार्थ है –
Explanation
The idiom means to take undue and excessive advantage of a small opportunity (given a finger, one grabs the whole wrist).
'बातों का अटकलपच्चू मतलब लगाने वाला', वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है –
Explanation
लालबुझक्कड़ is a person who guesses wild meanings of things. बातुल means a talkative person, चुगलखोर a backbiter and छिद्रान्वेषी a fault-finder.
'SECONDARY' का हिंदी समानार्थक नहीं है –
Explanation
गौण, द्वितीयक and माध्यमिक all correspond to 'secondary'; प्रस्तावक means 'proposer', so it is not a synonym.
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the tense : How long _____ learning English ?
Explanation
An action that began in the past and continues now takes the present perfect continuous: 'have you been learning'. 'Has' is wrong because the subject 'you' takes 'have'.
Change the following sentence from active to passive : They use video for teaching the students.
Explanation
Present simple active 'use' becomes 'is/are used' in the passive, with the object 'video' as the new subject. The other options change the tense or meaning.
Change the following sentence from interrogative to assertive : When can their glory fade ?
Explanation
A rhetorical 'When can...?' means 'never', so the assertive form is 'Their glory can never fade.' The other options distort the word order or add 'No'.
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. I must write _____ letters, so I need _____ paper.
Explanation
'Some' is used with plural nouns and uncountable nouns in affirmative sentences: 'some letters', 'some paper'. 'Any' is mainly for negatives and questions.
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition. The man is leaning _____ the wall.
Explanation
'Lean against' is the standard collocation for resting on a support such as a wall. 'Into' suggests movement inside.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. Of the three, tea, coffee and cocoa, the _____ is his favourite.
Explanation
With three items, 'the last' names the final one listed (cocoa). 'Latter' is used only when choosing between two items, so it is the strongest wrong option.
The Hindi version of 'Standing Committee' is
Explanation
'Standing' here means permanent, so Standing Committee is 'sthayi samiti'. 'Asthayi' means temporary, the opposite.
Choose the correct synonym of the word : Honest
Explanation
'Upright' means honest and morally correct. 'Hypocritical' is nearly the opposite, and 'destitute' means extremely poor.
Identify the incorrect use of the prefix : Under
Explanation
Undergo, underground and undersell are all valid English words. 'Underover' is not a word, so it is the incorrect use.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. His mother was _____ and hearty till yesterday when she suddenly died.
Explanation
'Hale and hearty' is a fixed phrase meaning healthy and strong. 'Hail', 'heel' and 'heal' are homophones with different meanings.
Which of the following inscriptions is a good source of the early history of Shakambhari Chauhan ?
Explanation
The Bijolia inscription (1170 CE) gives the genealogy of the Shakambhari Chauhans from Vasudev, so it is the key source for their early history. Chirwa and Ghatiyala inscriptions concern Mewar and the Pratiharas respectively.
In Medieval Marwar who was the top most officer after the ruler ?
Explanation
In medieval Marwar the Pradhan was the chief officer next to the ruler; the Diwan and Musahib ranked below. This follows the key; the exact rank order is recalled from Rajasthan administrative history texts, not re-verified.
Consider the following battles of Rajasthan : (i) Battle of Gingoli (ii) Battle of Sarangpur (iii) Matire ki Rad (iv) Battle of Dattani The right chronological order of these battles is –
Explanation
Sarangpur (1437) is the earliest and Gingoli (1807) the latest, so (ii) comes first and (i) last, as in the key. The Dattani battle is dated 1583 and Matira ki Rad 1644; Matira ki Rad is the later of the two only by that dating.
Who among the following Rajput rulers revolted against the Mughal Emperor ?
Explanation
Maharana Raj Singh of Mewar defied Aurangzeb, notably by sheltering Durgadas Rathore's cause and opposing the jizya, so he is the one who revolted. Anup Singh and Bishan Singh were Mughal servants.
What was Lata or Latai ?
Explanation
Lata or Latai was a land revenue system of crop-sharing, where the State's share was taken in kind after harvest. It is the opposite of cash assessment.
In which of the following prisons Pratap Singh Barhath died ?
Explanation
Pratap Singh Barhath, a revolutionary in the Banaras conspiracy case, died in Bareilly Central Jail in May 1918 after torture. He was kept there, not in the Andamans.
Rabindranath Tagore returned Knighthood award in protest of –
Explanation
Tagore renounced his knighthood in 1919 in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. He had opposed the Bengal partition in 1905, but that was not why he returned the title.
To which Prajamandal did freedom fighter Dharmchand Surana belong ?
Explanation
Dharmchand Surana is listed among the leaders of the Sirohi Prajamandal (founded 1938 at Sirohi), as in the key. This follows the key; no extra source was checked.
Match the following : (Newspaper) (Editor) (A) Rajasthan Patrika (i) Samarthdan (B) Rajasthan Samachar (ii) Rampratap Sharma (C) Sarvhit (iii) Jainarayan Vyas (D) Aagivaan (iv) Bakshi Lakshman Singh Code : (A) (B) (C) (D)
Explanation
Aagivaan (Jodhpur) was edited by Jainarayan Vyas, which fixes (D)-(iii) in every option shown. The key gives A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii); the other pairs follow the key and were not separately verified.
Who among the following was/were the member/s of Dr. Shankar Dev Rai Committee, constituted during the integration of Rajasthan ? (i) Prabhudayal (ii) Dr. Abhay Singh (iii) R.K. Sidhwa Code :
Explanation
The key gives (i) and (iii): Prabhudayal and R.K. Sidhwa were members of the Shankar Dev Rai committee. Dr. Abhay Singh is not counted as a member.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Explanation
Gugor Fort (Baran), Timangarh (Karauli) and Sunehri Kothi (Tonk) are correct. The Boreshwar Mahadev temple is not placed in Udaipur, so pair (3) is the mismatch, as keyed.
Chandulal, Mukund, Munnalal were the painters of which painting style ?
Explanation
Chandulal, Mukund and Munnalal are named among the Bikaner school painters (Ustas) in the key. Mewar's well-known painters are different, such as Sahibdin and Manohar.
The dialect in which the compositions of Bhakti Saints Sahajobai and Dayabai are found –
Explanation
Sahajobai and Dayabai were disciples of Charandas, the Mewat-born saint, and the key places their works in Mewati. Malvi and Nimadi belong to Malwa and Nimar.
Which one of the following is an autophonic instrument ?
Explanation
A ghan vadya (autophonic or idiophone) gives sound by striking the instrument itself; the Tankora is keyed as one. Karna is a wind instrument.
Who among the following was a famous Bhavai Dancer ?
Explanation
Dayaram is the Bhavai dancer named in the key. Bhavai is a folk dance-theatre of Rajasthan and Gujarat, performed with pots balanced on the head.
Which of the following customs is not related to marriage ?
Explanation
Samela (reception of the groom's party), Baan and Mugdhana are marriage customs, while Satarwada is not, as keyed. This follows the key.
Rikhiya and Neja are related with which of the following folk deity ?
Explanation
Rikhiya (the Meghwal devotees) and the Neja (flag) are associated with Ramdevji of Ramdevra. Pabuji is linked with the Bhopa and the Phad.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Explanation
Chandra Mahal is a part of the City Palace, Jaipur. Nathmal ki Haveli is in Jaisalmer, Phalvardhika Devi temple is at Phalodi, and Malkot is not at Hanumangarh.
Who established Sarvodaya Sadhana Ashram in Chittorgarh ?
Explanation
Jin Vijay Muni founded the Sarvodaya Sadhana Ashram at Chanderia, Chittorgarh (1950s). He was also a scholar and later headed the Rajasthan Oriental Research Institute.
Who presided over the assembly of Meenas at Neem ka Thana in April 1944 ?
Explanation
The 1944 Meena conference at Neem ka Thana (Sikar) was presided over by Jain Muni Magan Sagar, who inspired the Jarayam Pesha Kanoon opposition. The Jharwals were local Meena leaders, not its president.
Who was the first ruler in India to issue gold coins ?
Explanation
Wima Kadphises (Kushana) issued the first gold coins in India, as in the key. Kujula Kadphises issued only copper coins; Kanishka issued more gold later.
Which of the following Sanskrit texts is a drama ?
Explanation
Malvikagnimitra is a Sanskrit play by Kalidasa. Kumarsambhav and Raghuvansh are epic poems (mahakavya) and Meghdoot is a lyric poem.
Which of the following temples is a brick-built temple ?
Explanation
The Gupta-period Bhitargaon temple (Kanpur) is a brick temple. Tigawa, Bhumara and Nachna-Kuthara are stone temples.
Who among the following built Jahangiri Mahal at Agra Fort ?
Explanation
Akbar built the Jahangiri Mahal in Agra Fort, as keyed; it was used by Jahangir, hence the name. It was not built by Jahangir himself.
Which of the following is considered the first entirely white Marble tomb ?
Explanation
Hoshang Shah's tomb at Mandu (Malwa, 15th century) is regarded as the first marble tomb in India, as keyed. Itimad-ud-Daula's tomb (Agra) is an early Mughal marble tomb but later.
Read the following statements about the politics of the moderates : (a) The Moderates demanded that the Legislative Councils are to be made more representative. (b) The Moderates also advocated for the reduction of land revenue. Choose the correct code :
Explanation
The Moderates sought expansion and greater representation of the Legislative Councils and also demanded lower land revenue, so both statements are true. This matches the key.
Who declared himself as Nawab Nazim in 1857 Revolt in Barailly ?
Explanation
Khan Bahadur Khan, a descendant of Hafiz Rahmat Khan, declared himself Nawab Nazim at Bareilly in 1857. Maulvi Ahmadullah led the revolt at Faizabad and Lucknow.
Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
Explanation
The first Marathi newspaper was Darpan (1832, Balshastri Jambhekar); Yugantar was a Bengali revolutionary paper. The other three pairs are correct.
Questions: Rajasthan Public Service Commission. Answers: RPSC final answer key. Explanations: TopKaro.