Federalism, emergency & amendments MCQ with Answers
20 questions·with explanations·for RAS, Patwari, VDO and other Rajasthan exams
Questions
Q1
Under Article 248 of the Constitution, the residuary powers of legislation are vested in:
(1)Parliament✓ Correct answer
(2)State Legislatures
(3)Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
(4)The President
Answer: (1) Parliament
Explanation
Article 248 (read with Entry 97 of the Union List) gives Parliament exclusive power over any matter not listed in the State or Concurrent List; this follows the Canadian model.
Q2
Which of the following subjects was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
(1)Agriculture
(2)Education✓ Correct answer
(3)Police
(4)Public health
Answer: (2) Education
Explanation
The 42nd Amendment moved five subjects to the Concurrent List: education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice. Agriculture, police and public health remain in the State List.
Q3
Consider the following statements about Article 249 of the Constitution:
1. The Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
2. Such a resolution remains in force for up to one year and can be renewed any number of times, one year at a time.
3. A law made under it ceases to have effect six months after the resolution ceases to be in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1)1 and 2 only
(2)1 and 3 only
(3)2 and 3 only
(4)1, 2 and 3✓ Correct answer
Answer: (4) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
All three are correct: under Article 249, Parliament can legislate on a State List matter in the national interest after such a Rajya Sabha resolution, and the law lapses six months after the resolution ends.
Q4
Match List-I (Article) with List-II (Parliament's power to legislate on State subjects):
List-I: A. Article 249 B. Article 250 C. Article 252 D. Article 253
List-II: 1. To implement international treaties and agreements 2. On the request of two or more States through resolutions of their legislatures 3. While a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation 4. In the national interest, on a Rajya Sabha resolution
Choose the correct code:
(1)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(2)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(3)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1✓ Correct answer
(4)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Answer: (3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Explanation
Art 249: national interest (Rajya Sabha resolution); Art 250: national emergency; Art 252: consent of two or more States; Art 253: international agreements.
Q5
The Rajamannar Committee (1969) on Centre–State relations was appointed by which government?
(1)Government of Kerala
(2)Government of West Bengal
(3)Government of Punjab
(4)Government of Tamil Nadu✓ Correct answer
Answer: (4) Government of Tamil Nadu
Explanation
The Rajamannar Committee was set up by the Tamil Nadu government in 1969, unlike the Sarkaria (1983) and Punchhi (2007) Commissions, which were appointed by the Central government.
Q6
By the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, which ground for proclaiming a National Emergency under Article 352 replaced 'internal disturbance'?
(1)Armed rebellion✓ Correct answer
(2)External aggression
(3)War
(4)Breakdown of law and order
Answer: (1) Armed rebellion
Explanation
The 44th Amendment substituted 'armed rebellion' for 'internal disturbance', so a National Emergency can now be proclaimed only on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Q7
Consider the following statements about a Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 (as amended by the 44th Amendment):
1. It must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month of its issue.
2. Once approved, it continues for six months and can be extended for an indefinite period with Parliament's approval every six months.
3. A resolution approving the proclamation or its continuance needs only a simple majority of each House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1)1 only
(2)1 and 2 only✓ Correct answer
(3)2 and 3 only
(4)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (2) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Since the 44th Amendment, each approving resolution needs a special majority: a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting.
Q8
Under Article 356 (as amended by the 44th Amendment), what is the maximum period for which President's Rule can continue in a State with successive parliamentary approvals?
(1)One year
(2)Two years
(3)Three years✓ Correct answer
(4)Five years
Answer: (3) Three years
Explanation
President's Rule can last up to three years, approved every six months; beyond one year it needs a National Emergency in force and an Election Commission certificate that elections cannot be held.
Q9
In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that whether a State ministry enjoys majority support should be tested:
(1)On the floor of the Legislative Assembly✓ Correct answer
(2)By the Governor's personal assessment
(3)By a parade of MLAs at Raj Bhavan
(4)By a report of the Union Home Ministry
Answer: (1) On the floor of the Legislative Assembly
Explanation
Bommai held that the floor test is the proper way to judge majority and that a proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review; it also declared secularism part of the basic structure.
Q10
How many times has a Financial Emergency under Article 360 been proclaimed in India?
(1)Once, in 1991
(2)Once, in 1975
(3)Twice
(4)Never✓ Correct answer
Answer: (4) Never
Explanation
A Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed, not even during the 1991 economic crisis. National Emergency, by contrast, was proclaimed in 1962, 1971 and 1975.
Q11
An amendment to which of the following requires, in addition to a special majority in Parliament, ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States?
(1)Fundamental Rights
(2)Representation of States in Parliament✓ Correct answer
(3)Directive Principles of State Policy
(4)Fundamental Duties
Answer: (2) Representation of States in Parliament
Explanation
Federal provisions, such as representation of States in Parliament, the election of the President, the Seventh Schedule lists and Article 368 itself, need ratification by half the States by simple majority; Fundamental Rights, DPSP and Fundamental Duties need only a special majority.
Q12
Provisions relating to the Official Language (Articles 343–351) are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
(1)Part XV
(2)Part XVI
(3)Part XVII✓ Correct answer
(4)Part XVIII
Answer: (3) Part XVII
Explanation
Part XVII deals with the Official Language; Article 343 makes Hindi in Devanagari script the official language of the Union. Part XV covers elections and Part XVIII emergency provisions.
Q13
The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) was decided by a bench of how many judges, and by what majority?
(1)13 judges, 7:6✓ Correct answer
(2)11 judges, 6:5
(3)13 judges, 9:4
(4)9 judges, 5:4
Answer: (1) 13 judges, 7:6
Explanation
A 13-judge bench, by a 7:6 majority, held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but not its basic structure. The Golaknath case (1967) was decided by 11 judges, 6:5.
Q14
Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
(1)42nd Amendment
(2)52nd Amendment
(3)61st Amendment✓ Correct answer
(4)73rd Amendment
Answer: (3) 61st Amendment
Explanation
The 61st Amendment Act, 1988 (in force from 1989) amended Article 326 to lower the voting age for Lok Sabha and Assembly elections from 21 to 18 years.
Q15
The Tenth Schedule, containing the anti-defection provisions, was added to the Constitution by which Amendment?
(1)42nd Amendment
(2)52nd Amendment✓ Correct answer
(3)61st Amendment
(4)91st Amendment
Answer: (2) 52nd Amendment
Explanation
The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 added the Tenth Schedule. The 91st Amendment (2003) later removed the exemption for a split by one-third of a legislature party.
Q16
The GST Council, introduced by the 101st Amendment Act, 2016, is provided for under which Article?
(1)Article 246A
(2)Article 269A
(3)Article 280
(4)Article 279A✓ Correct answer
Answer: (4) Article 279A
Explanation
Article 279A provides for the GST Council. Article 246A gives Parliament and States concurrent power to levy GST, and Article 269A covers GST on inter-State supplies.
Q17
The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) reserves one-third of seats for women in:
(1)Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(2)Lok Sabha and State Legislative Councils
(3)Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies✓ Correct answer
(4)Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: (3) Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
Explanation
It inserted Articles 330A and 332A (and amended Article 239AA for the Delhi Assembly); under Article 334A the reservation starts after the delimitation following the first census after the Act and lasts 15 years. It does not cover the Rajya Sabha or Legislative Councils.
Q18
Match List-I (Amendment) with List-II (Subject):
List-I: A. 97th Amendment B. 103rd Amendment C. 104th Amendment D. 105th Amendment
List-II: 1. Restored the power of States to prepare their own lists of socially and educationally backward classes 2. Constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies 3. Ended nomination of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies 4. 10% reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS)
Choose the correct code:
(1)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1✓ Correct answer
(2)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3)A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(4)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Answer: (1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Explanation
97th (2011): cooperative societies (Part IXB); 103rd (2019): 10% EWS reservation; 104th (2019): ended Anglo-Indian nomination and extended SC/ST seat reservation to 2030; 105th (2021): restored States' power to identify SEBCs.
Q19
Article 371A of the Constitution contains special provisions with respect to which State?
(1)Mizoram
(2)Nagaland✓ Correct answer
(3)Sikkim
(4)Manipur
Answer: (2) Nagaland
Explanation
Article 371A protects Naga religious and social practices, customary law and ownership of land in Nagaland. Manipur is under 371C, Sikkim 371F and Mizoram 371G.
Q20
Which of the following languages is NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
(1)Dogri
(2)Maithili
(3)Santhali
(4)Rajasthani✓ Correct answer
Answer: (4) Rajasthani
Explanation
The Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages; Dogri, Maithili, Santhali and Bodo were added by the 92nd Amendment (2003). Rajasthani is not yet included, though its inclusion has long been demanded.