The four segments of the Golden Quadrilateral join the following cities :
A. Delhi – Mumbai
B. Mumbai – Chennai
C. Chennai – Kolkata
D. Kolkata – Delhi
Consider the length of the above segments in descending order and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1)C, D, A, B✓ Correct answer
(2)C, D, B, A
(3)D, C, B, A
(4)D, C, A, B
Explanation
Approximate lengths of the Golden Quadrilateral segments: Chennai–Kolkata ≈ 1,684 km, Kolkata–Delhi ≈ 1,453 km, Delhi–Mumbai ≈ 1,419 km and Mumbai–Chennai ≈ 1,290 km. So the descending order is C, D, A, B.
Q2 · Geography of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements :
A. Luni Basin and Shekhawati region are the Sub-regions of Rajasthan Bangar.
B. Ghaggar Plain covers mostly Hanumangarh and Ganganagar district.
C. Nagaur uplands have salty lakes and inland drainage.
D. Aravalli ranges are rich in all types of minerals.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1)A and B
(2)A, B and C✓ Correct answer
(3)B, C and D
(4)A, B, C and D
Explanation
Rajasthan Bangar (the semi-arid inland-drainage plain) has sub-regions such as the Luni basin (Godwar), Shekhawati inland drainage, the Nagaur upland and the Ghaggar plain; the Ghaggar plain lies mainly in Hanumangarh and Sri Ganganagar, and the Nagaur upland has saline lakes (Didwana, Kuchaman, Sambhar) with inland drainage. Statement D is wrong: the Aravallis are rich in metallic and many non-metallic minerals but not in all types (e.g. no petroleum or coal).
Q3 · Geography of Rajasthan
Which of the following group of districts of Rajasthan is correctly arranged in ascending order as per average rainfall during South-West Monsoon ?
(1)Jalore, Jaipur, Kota✓ Correct answer
(2)Jaisalmer, Banswara, Rajsamand
(3)Nagaur, Dhaulpur, Ajmer
(4)Churu, Baran, Bhilwara
Explanation
Monsoon rainfall in Rajasthan increases from the west towards the south-east: Jalore (about 400 mm) < Jaipur (about 600 mm) < Kota (about 850 mm), so this group is in ascending order. In the other groups the order breaks, e.g. Banswara (about 900+ mm, among the wettest) receives more rain than Rajsamand.
Q4 · World & Indian Geography
Which is not a correct match ?
Nuclear Power Plant — State
(1)Kalpakkam – Tamil Nadu
(2)Kakrapar – Gujarat
(3)Kaiga – Tamil Nadu✓ Correct answer
(4)Narora – Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
Kaiga Atomic Power Station is in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka, not Tamil Nadu. Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Kakrapar (Gujarat) and Narora (Uttar Pradesh) are correctly matched.
Q5 · Geography of Rajasthan
Which type of soil is dominant in Jaipur, Dausa and Alwar districts ?
(1)Entisol
(2)Inceptisols
(3)Vertisols
(4)Alfisols✓ Correct answer
Explanation
In the USDA (soil taxonomy) classification used for Rajasthan, Alfisols are dominant in the eastern districts such as Jaipur, Dausa, Alwar, Bharatpur and Sawai Madhopur. Entisols and Aridisols dominate the western desert, while Vertisols (black soils) are found in the Hadoti region.
Q6 · Economy of Rajasthan
In the year 2021-22, contribution of Rajasthan in total production of Bajra in the country (in percentage) was
(1)46.30
(2)87.69
(3)38.98✓ Correct answer
(4)34.69
Explanation
As per the Rajasthan Economic Review, Rajasthan contributed 38.98 percent of India's total Bajra (pearl millet) production in 2021-22, making it the largest Bajra-producing state.
Q7 · Economy of Rajasthan
Medtech Medical Devices Park is located at
(1)Ganeshwar Extension, Sikar
(2)Maal Ki Toos, Udaipur
(3)Nainwa, Bundi
(4)Boranada, Jodhpur (undivided)✓ Correct answer
Explanation
RIICO is developing the Medtech Medical Devices Park at Boranada in Jodhpur (undivided district) to promote the manufacture of medical devices.
Q8 · Geography of Rajasthan
In which district of Rajasthan 'Khadin' is a popular method of water conservation ?
(1)Nagaur
(2)Bikaner
(3)Jaisalmer✓ Correct answer
(4)Pali
Explanation
Khadin is a traditional runoff-farming and water-harvesting system developed by the Paliwal Brahmins of Jaisalmer: an earthen embankment across a slope stores rainwater, and the moist bed is later used for cropping.
Q9 · Geography of Rajasthan
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (District) — List – II (River)
A. Udaipur — i. Sabi & Ruparel
B. Bundi — ii. Gambhiri & Parvati
C. Bharatpur — iii. Som & Jakham
D. Alwar — iv. Kural
Codes :
(1)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3)A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Som and Jakham flow in the Udaipur region (A-iii); Kural flows in Bundi (B-iv); Gambhiri and Parvati flow through Bharatpur (C-ii); Sabi and Ruparel flow in Alwar (D-i).
Q10 · Geography of Rajasthan
At which of the following places, asbestos mines are located in Rajasthan ?
(1)Arjunpura and Piparda✓ Correct answer
(2)Kura and Mangol
(3)Karpura and Fatehgarh
(4)Depura and Dingri
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, Arjunpura and Piparda are asbestos-bearing localities of Rajasthan. Asbestos (mainly the amphibole/tremolite variety) occurs in the ultramafic rocks of southern and central Rajasthan, in districts such as Udaipur, Dungarpur, Rajsamand, Ajmer, Bhilwara and Pali.
Q11 · Geography of Rajasthan
The most important resources of lignite in Rajasthan are located at
(1)Palana, Agucha and Merta
(2)Palana, Kasnau and Jagpura
(3)Kapurdi, Merta and Kasnau✓ Correct answer
(4)Kapurdi, Palana and Jagpura
Explanation
Kapurdi (Barmer), Merta and Kasnau (Nagaur) are all important lignite fields of Rajasthan. Other options include non-lignite sites: Agucha (Bhilwara) is a lead-zinc mine and Jagpura (Banswara) is known for gold.
Q12 · Geography of Rajasthan
Which is not a correct match ?
Conservation Reserve (as on May 2023) — District
(1)Rankhar – Jalore
(2)Mansamata – Jhunjhunu
(3)Sorsan – Bundi✓ Correct answer
(4)Hamirgarh – Bhilwara
Explanation
Sorsan conservation reserve (a grassland known for the Great Indian Bustard and blackbuck) is in Baran district, not Bundi. Rankhar (Jalore), Mansa Mata (Jhunjhunu) and Hamirgarh (Bhilwara) are correctly matched.
Q13 · Geography of Rajasthan
Mount Abu and Ranakpur are included in which tourist circuit ?
(1)Dhundhar
(2)Shekhawati
(3)Godwar✓ Correct answer
(4)Mewar
Explanation
Rajasthan Tourism's Godwar circuit covers Pali, Sirohi and Jalore areas, including Ranakpur (Pali) and Mount Abu (Sirohi). The Mewar circuit centres on Udaipur–Chittorgarh, Dhundhar on Jaipur and Shekhawati on Jhunjhunu–Sikar–Churu.
Q14 · Indian History
The national executive of which political party called for the dissolution of the Constituent Assembly and its re-election by adult suffrage ?
(1)Hindu Mahasabha
(2)Socialist Party✓ Correct answer
(3)Swaraj Party
(4)Muslim League
Explanation
The Socialist Party, which stayed out of the Constituent Assembly, criticised it as unrepresentative because it was elected indirectly on a limited franchise. Its national executive demanded that the Assembly be dissolved and re-elected by adult suffrage.
Q15 · Geography of Rajasthan
The correct descending order of districts in Rajasthan based on total literacy rate (census 2011) is
Census 2011 literacy rates: Kota 76.56%, Jaipur 75.51%, Jhunjhunu 74.13%, Sikar 71.91% and Alwar 70.72%. So the descending order is Kota, Jaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Alwar.
Q16 · Indian Constitution & Polity
Fundamental Rights provided by which of the following groups of Articles are granted only to 'Citizens' of India ?
(1)Articles 14, 20, 23 and 30
(2)Articles 15, 21, 25 and 28
(3)Articles 20, 21, 25 and 30
(4)Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Fundamental Rights available only to citizens are in Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30. Articles 14, 20, 21, 23, 25 and 28 are available to all persons, including foreigners, so every other option contains at least one such Article.
Q17 · Indian Constitution & Polity
In which year it was inserted in the Constitution of India that the State shall secure free legal aid to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities ?
(1)1978
(2)1976✓ Correct answer
(3)1975
(4)1979
Explanation
Article 39A (equal justice and free legal aid) was inserted in the Directive Principles by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Q18 · Indian Constitution & Polity
Match List-A with List-B and identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-A (Case) — List-B (Amendment challenged)
A. Indira Gandhi V. Raj Narain — i. 42nd Amendment
B. Minerva Mills V. Union of India — ii. 52nd Amendment
C. Kihoto Hollohan V. Zachillu — iii. 39th Amendment
D. P. Sambamurthy V. State of A.P. — iv. 32nd Amendment
Codes :
(1)A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(2)A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3)A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4)A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) struck down part of the 39th Amendment; Minerva Mills (1980) struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment; Kihoto Hollohan (1992) examined the 52nd Amendment (anti-defection, Tenth Schedule); P. Sambamurthy (1987) concerned Article 371D inserted by the 32nd Amendment. Hence A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv.
Q19 · Indian Constitution & Polity
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the election of the President of India ?
(1)The President of India is elected by the members of an Electoral College consisting of (a) the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the Union Territories with Legislative Assembly.
(2)Value of vote for each of the members of the Electoral College is decided based on the population census of 1971 and it will continue to be so till population of the first census taken after the year 2026 have been published.
(3)The elections are held in accordance with the system of Proportional Representation by means of single transferable vote.
(4)Every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one hundred in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Under Article 55(2)(b), each elected MLA has as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand (not one hundred) in the quotient of the State's population divided by the number of elected members. The other statements correctly describe the electoral college, the 1971-census freeze till after 2026 and the single transferable vote system.
Q20 · Indian Constitution & Polity
Identify the correct statement regarding the Election Commission of India.
(1)Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body and it was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January, 1952.
(2)The concept of multi-member Commission has been in operation since 1995 with decision making power by majority vote.
(3)Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.✓ Correct answer
(4)The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners and they have tenure of five years, or up to the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.
Explanation
Under Articles 103 and 192, the President/Governor decides questions of disqualification of sitting MPs/MLAs after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission, so the Commission has advisory jurisdiction. The others are wrong: ECI was set up on 25 January 1950, it became multi-member permanently from 1993, and the tenure is 6 years or up to age 65.
Q21 · Indian Constitution & Polity
Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the speaker of Lok Sabha are correct ? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(i) The speaker presides over a joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament.
(ii) When a Money Bill is transferred from the Lower House to the Upper House, the speaker shall endorse on the bill his certificate that it is a Money Bill.
(iii) While a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the speaker shall neither preside nor take part in its proceedings.
(iv) The speaker does not vote in the House except when there is equality of votes.
Codes :
(1)Only (i) and (iii)
(2)Only (i) and (ii)
(3)Only (i), (ii) and (iv)✓ Correct answer
(4)Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation
The Speaker presides over joint sittings (Art. 118(4)), certifies Money Bills before they go to the Rajya Sabha (Art. 110(4)), and has only a casting vote in case of a tie (Art. 100). Statement (iii) is wrong: under Art. 96, while a resolution for his removal is under consideration the Speaker cannot preside, but he can speak, take part in the proceedings and vote in the first instance.
Q22 · Economy
Which of the following is a matter on which the Finance Commission notified by the Ministry of Finance on 31st December, 2023 shall not make its recommendation ?
(1)The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be or may be divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution.
(2)The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
(3)The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities.
(4)Review the present arrangements on Financing Climate Management initiatives.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
The 16th Finance Commission (notified 31 December 2023) must recommend tax devolution, principles of grants-in-aid, and measures to augment State Consolidated Funds for Panchayats and Municipalities. Its additional reference is to review the financing of Disaster Management initiatives (under the DM Act, 2005), not 'Climate Management'.
Q23 · Indian Constitution & Polity
Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) The Congress won 145 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election.
(b) The BJP won 133 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election.
(c) The CPI(M) won 48 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election.
Codes :
(1)Only (a) is correct.✓ Correct answer
(2)Only (a) and (b) are correct.
(3)Only (b) and (c) are correct.
(4)Only (a) and (c) are correct.
Explanation
In the 2004 Lok Sabha election the Congress won 145 seats, the BJP 138 and the CPI(M) 43. So only statement (a) is correct.
Q24 · Indian Constitution & Polity
The Central Vigilance Commission was formed on the basis of the recommendations of which of the following committee ?
(1)Santhanam Committee✓ Correct answer
(2)Kelkar Committee
(3)Swaran Singh Committee
(4)Bakshi Tek Chand Committee
Explanation
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up in 1964 on the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption headed by K. Santhanam.
Q25 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Which of the following Chief Minister faced President's Rule in Rajasthan for maximum number of times ?
(1)HariDev Joshi
(2)Bhairon Singh Shekhawat✓ Correct answer
(3)JaiNarayan Vyas
(4)ShivCharan Mathur
Explanation
President's Rule was imposed in Rajasthan four times: 1967 (Sukhadia era), 1977 (Hari Dev Joshi), 1980 and 1992. The 1980 and 1992 spells both ended Bhairon Singh Shekhawat governments, so he faced it the most times (twice).
Q26 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
As of the end of the November 2024, how many women were there in the Rajasthan Council of Ministers ?
(1)Only 1
(2)Only 2✓ Correct answer
(3)Only 3
(4)Only 5
Explanation
At the end of November 2024, the Bhajan Lal Sharma Council of Ministers had two women: Deputy Chief Minister Diya Kumari and Minister of State Manju Baghmar.
Q27 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding subordinate legislation in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly ?
(1)The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines all "orders" framed in pursuance of the provision of the constitution or a statute delegating power to subordinate authority to make such order.
(2)The Committee may examine provisions of Bills which seek to delegate powers to make orders.
(3)Speaker refers Bills containing provisions for delegation of legislative powers to the Committee.
(4)This is done by Rule 240 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, statement D is incorrect: Rule 240 is not the rule under which the Committee on Subordinate Legislation's functions are laid down in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly's Rules of Procedure. Statements A–C correctly describe the Committee's work of examining delegated rules and orders, and Bills that delegate such powers.
Q28 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Governor of Rajasthan ?
(1)On the basis of the recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission, the institution of Rajpramukh was abolished.
(2)The institution of Rajpramukh was abolished by the 7th Constitutional amendment.
(3)Gurumukh Nihal Singh was appointed as the first Governor of Rajasthan on 1st November, 1956 AD.✓ Correct answer
(4)Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde assumed the office of the Governor of Rajasthan on 31st July, 2024.
Explanation
Gurmukh Nihal Singh was appointed the first Governor of Rajasthan on 25 October 1956 and assumed office on 1 November 1956, so saying he was 'appointed' on 1 November is incorrect. The Rajpramukh post was abolished on the States Reorganisation Commission's recommendation through the 7th Amendment (1956), and Haribhau Bagde took office on 31 July 2024.
Q29 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Who becomes the chairperson of District Planning Committee in Rajasthan ?
(1)District Collector
(2)Chief Executive Officer of Zila Parishad
(3)Member of Parliament
(4)Zila Pramukh✓ Correct answer
Explanation
In Rajasthan, the Zila Pramukh (chairperson of the Zila Parishad) is the chairperson of the District Planning Committee constituted under Article 243ZD.
Q30 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
By which Act, the Jaipur Development Authority was established ?
(1)Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982✓ Correct answer
(2)Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1983
(3)Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1984
(4)Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1985
Explanation
The Jaipur Development Authority was constituted under the Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982 (Rajasthan Act No. 25 of 1982).
Q31 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Which of the following group of princely states had enacted legislations on Panchayats prior to independence ?
As per RPSC's final answer key, Jodhpur, Jaipur, Udaipur (Mewar) and Sirohi are among the princely states that passed panchayat laws before independence (Bikaner was the first, in 1928). The keyed group is the one in which every state had such a law.
Q32 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Which Article of the Constitution prescribes mandatory consultation with RPSC on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under Government of Rajasthan ?
(1)Article 320(3)✓ Correct answer
(2)Article 318(1)
(3)Article 322(2)
(4)Article 325(4)
Explanation
Article 320(3)(c) requires the Public Service Commission to be consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India or a State in a civil capacity.
Q33 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
From which of the following date Pramil Kumar Mathur assumed the office of the Registrar General of Rajasthan High Court ?
(1)20/02/2024
(2)20/03/2024
(3)20/04/2024✓ Correct answer
(4)20/05/2024
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, Pramil Kumar Mathur assumed the office of Registrar General of the Rajasthan High Court on 20 April 2024. He was later elevated as a judge of the Rajasthan High Court in January 2025.
Q34 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Deputy Lokayukta Act, 1973, the Lokayukta is empowered to investigate allegations against ministers and public servants in certain cases. Which of the following subject is not part of those investigations ?
(1)Unreasonable harm or suffering caused by public servants.
(2)Abusing his official position as a public servant to obtain illegal benefits for himself or any other person.
(3)Sexual harassment of women, caste discrimination and violence against children.✓ Correct answer
(4)Can be related to being guilty of corruption or lack of transparency in the capacity of a public servant.
Explanation
Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Deputy Lokayukta Act, 1973 covers allegations of abuse of official position for gain, corruption or lack of integrity, and grievances of injustice or undue hardship caused by public servants. Sexual harassment of women, caste discrimination and violence against children are not among the subjects listed there; they are handled under other laws and bodies.
Q35 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
What is the amount of security deposit to contest the election of a Mayor by a candidate belonging to the general category ?
(1)₹ 10,000
(2)₹ 20,000
(3)₹ 30,000✓ Correct answer
(4)₹ 40,000
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, a general-category candidate contesting the election of Mayor (Municipal Corporation) in Rajasthan has to make a security deposit of ₹30,000; reserved-category candidates deposit a lower amount.
Q36 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
State Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a Committee. Who of the following is not a member of this Committee ?
(1)The Chief Minister
(2)The Leader of opposition in Legislative Assembly
(3)A cabinet minister to be nominated by the Chief Minister
(4)Chief Justice of High Court✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Under Section 15(3) of the RTI Act, 2005, the State Information Commissioners are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee of the Chief Minister (chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Assembly and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister. The Chief Justice of the High Court is not a member.
Q37 · Political & Administrative System of Rajasthan
Among the following Chairpersons of Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission, who could complete a five year term ?
(1)Justice Ms. Kanta Bhatnagar
(2)Justice N.K. Jain✓ Correct answer
(3)Justice S. Sageer Ahmed
(4)Justice Prakash Tatia
Explanation
Justice N.K. Jain chaired the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission for a full five-year term (2005–2010). Justice Kanta Bhatnagar and Justice S. Sagir Ahmed had short tenures, and Justice Prakash Tatia's tenure ended before five years on reaching the age limit.
Q38 · Indian Constitution & Polity
The aim of citizen's charter is not –
(1)Quality and time frame service delivery
(2)Citizen friendly governance
(3)Accountable Government
(4)To create effective hearing system of public demands✓ Correct answer
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, a Citizen's Charter aims at time-bound, quality service delivery, citizen-friendly governance and an accountable government by stating service standards. Creating a system for hearing public demands is not taken as its aim.
Q39 · Economy
In which of the following year annual growth rate of Gross National Income and Net National Income on both current prices and constant prices were Negative in India ?
(1)2018-19
(2)2019-20
(3)2020-21✓ Correct answer
(4)2021-22
Explanation
In 2020-21 the COVID-19 pandemic and lockdown caused the economy to contract, so the growth rates of GNI and NNI were negative at both current and constant prices. In 2018-19, 2019-20 and 2021-22 these growth rates were positive.
Q40 · Economy
Which of the following statement is related to the benefit of the "Input Tax Credit Mechanism" of GST ?
(1)This avoid double taxation.✓ Correct answer
(2)This avoid tax on production.
(3)This provide tax relief to start-ups.
(4)There is no need to keep records for producers.
Explanation
Input Tax Credit lets a business deduct the GST already paid on its inputs from the GST due on its output. Tax is therefore paid only on value added, which removes double taxation (the cascading 'tax on tax').
Q41 · Economy of Rajasthan
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding RAJ NIVESH Portal of Rajasthan ?
(1)RAJ NIVESH portal provides a single point (online) interface and a time bound clearance system by acting as a one-stop information/registration/approval/tracking centre for clearances/approvals.
(2)It is a "One Stop Shop" (OSS) facility directly under Chief Minister to facilitate large investment proposals more effectively and expedite requisite approvals / clearances for the same under one roof.✓ Correct answer
(3)Rules for the One Stop Shop has been notified on 26.11.2020.
(4)The portal also provides updated information relating to relevant rules, regulations, orders and policy initiatives and schemes for guidance of investors.
Explanation
The One Stop Shop (OSS) for large investment proposals functions under the Bureau of Investment Promotion (BIP) of the Industries Department, with officers of various departments deputed to it, not 'directly under the Chief Minister'. The other statements correctly describe the RAJ NIVESH portal.
Q42 · Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of inflation in India ?
A. Core inflation include the prices of food and energy.
B. Headline inflation exclude food inflation.
C. Headline inflation is more volatile in nature than core inflation.
Select the answer using the codes given below :
(1)A and B only
(2)A and C only
(3)B and C only
(4)Only C✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Core inflation excludes the volatile food and fuel/energy prices, so A is wrong. Headline inflation includes food, so B is wrong. Because it includes these volatile items, headline inflation is more volatile than core inflation, so only C is correct.
Q43 · Economy
In List–I, the names of agricultural crops are given and in List–II, the names of the states which stood first in the production of these crops in 2021-22 are given. Match them by using codes :
List–I — List–II
A. Nutricereals — i. Rajasthan
B. Total pulses — ii. Karnataka
C. Groundnut — iii. Madhya Pradesh
D. Soyabean — iv. Maharashtra
v. Gujarat
Codes :
(1)A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3)A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-iv✓ Correct answer
(4)A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, the match is A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-iv. In 2021-22 Madhya Pradesh was first in total pulses, Gujarat in groundnut and Maharashtra in soyabean; this is the only code that fits all three.
Q44 · Economy
Consider the following statements regarding "National Food Security Act" (NFSA) in India :
A. It was enacted on July 5, 2013.
B. Around 50 crore persons have been covered under NFSA at present.
C. The Act legally entitles upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains.
Choose the correct option using codes :
(1)Both B and C are correct.
(2)Both A and B are correct.
(3)Both A and C are correct.✓ Correct answer
(4)A, B and C are correct.
Explanation
The NFSA is deemed to have come into force on 5 July 2013 (the date of the ordinance it replaced), and it entitles up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population to subsidised foodgrains. B is wrong because about 81 crore people are covered, not 50 crore.
Q45 · Current Affairs
Consider the following statements regarding World Happiness Report – 2024 :
A. India ranked 126th out of more than 140 countries, which is lower than its neighbouring countries including China, Nepal, Pakistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
B. India's ranking has remained relatively stagnant over the years, indicating limited progress in improving the overall happiness and well-being of its population.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1)Only A
(2)Only B✓ Correct answer
(3)Both A and B
(4)Neither A nor B
Explanation
In the World Happiness Report 2024, India ranked 126th of 143 countries. That is below China, Nepal, Pakistan and Myanmar but above Sri Lanka (128th) and Bangladesh (129th), so statement A is wrong. India's rank has stayed in a similar low range for years, so only B is correct.
Q46 · Economy
Worker to Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as
(1)Percentage of employed persons in labour force
(2)Percentage of employed persons in working age population
(3)Percentage of employed persons in total population✓ Correct answer
(4)Percentage of working age population in total population
Explanation
In the PLFS, the Worker Population Ratio is the percentage of employed persons in the total population. The percentage of persons in the labour force (employed plus unemployed) in the population is the Labour Force Participation Rate.
Q47 · Economy
Which of the following is not associated with financial sector reforms in India initiated after 1991 ?
(1)Capital adequacy
(2)Non-performing assets
(3)F.R.B.M. Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management)✓ Correct answer
(4)SARFAESI Act
Explanation
The FRBM Act, 2003 is a fiscal reform for controlling government deficits and debt, not a financial-sector reform. Capital adequacy norms, NPA recognition norms and the SARFAESI Act, 2002 came from banking/financial-sector reforms (Narasimham Committees).
Q48 · Economy of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements regarding fiscal deficit of Rajasthan :
A. The actual fiscal deficit in the year 2022-23 has been 3.76 percent of the State GDP.
B. This is less than the limit prescribed by the F.R.B.M. Act, 2005.
C. The fiscal deficit of 2022-23 was higher than that of 2021-22.
Choose the correct option :
(1)Both A and C are correct.
(2)Both A and B are correct.
(3)Both B and C are correct.
(4)All A, B and C are correct.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key (based on the Rajasthan Economic Review), all three statements are correct. The actual fiscal deficit for 2022-23 was 3.76% of GSDP, which is within the FRBM limit (3.5% plus 0.5% extra for power-sector reforms) and higher than the 2021-22 level.
Q49 · Economy of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements regarding targets of Rajasthan Mineral Policy – 2024 :
A. Provide employment to 50 lakh people by 2029-30 and over 1 crore people (direct and indirect) by 2046-47.
B. Enhance the mineral sector's contribution to state's GSDP from 3.4 percent in 2023-24 to 5 percent by 2029-30 and to 8 percent by 2046-47.
C. Expand the number of minerals under extraction from 58 to 70 by 2047.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1)A and B only
(2)B and C only
(3)A and C only
(4)A, B and C✓ Correct answer
Explanation
The Rajasthan Mineral Policy 2024 targets employment for 50 lakh people by 2029-30 and over 1 crore by 2046-47; it aims to raise the mineral sector's share of GSDP from 3.4% (2023-24) to 5% by 2029-30 and 8% by 2046-47; and it aims to expand the minerals under extraction from 58 to 70. All three statements are correct.
Q50 · Economy of Rajasthan
The correct share of various sector in Gross Fixed Capital Formation of Rajasthan in descending order is
(1)Manufacturing, Mining, Agriculture, Construction
(4)Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining, Construction
Explanation
As per the Rajasthan Economic Review's data on sector-wise Gross Fixed Capital Formation (as keyed by RPSC), construction has the largest share, followed by manufacturing, agriculture and then mining.
Q51 · Economy
Ease of Doing Business ranking for the states in India is released by –
(1)Department of Industry and Commerce
(2)Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade✓ Correct answer
(3)Investment Promotion Bureau
(4)Rajasthan Small Industry Corporation Limited (RAJSICO)
Explanation
State rankings under the Business Reforms Action Plan (Ease of Doing Business) are released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
Q52 · Economy of Rajasthan
Which of the following has been formed in place of Chief Minister's Rajasthan Economic Transformation Advisory Council (CMRETAC) ?
(1)Rajasthan Skill and Livelihoods Development Corporation (RSLDC)
(2)Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI)✓ Correct answer
(3)Rajasthan Centre of Advanced Technology (R-CAT)
In 2024 the Rajasthan government replaced the Chief Minister's Rajasthan Economic Transformation Advisory Council (CMRETAC) with the Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI), a NITI Aayog-style think tank.
Q53 · Economy of Rajasthan
Which of the following park/zone has not been developed by RIICO in Rajasthan ?
(1)Medtech Medical Devices Park – Boranada, Jodhpur
(2)Integrated Resource Recovery Park – Jamwa Ramgarh, Jaipur
(3)Sports Goods and Toys Zone – Khushkheda, Bhiwadi
(4)Agro Food Park – Udaipur✓ Correct answer
Explanation
RIICO's agro food parks are at Kota, Jodhpur (Boranada), Sri Ganganagar and Alwar; there is no RIICO Agro Food Park at Udaipur. The Medtech park (Boranada), the Integrated Resource Recovery Park (Jamwa Ramgarh) and the Sports Goods and Toys Zone (Khushkheda, Bhiwadi) are RIICO projects.
Q54 · Economy of Rajasthan
Rajasthan Government announced M-Sand Policy in the year 2024. This will remain in force –
(1)until 31 March, 2029 or till a new policy is announced✓ Correct answer
(2)until 31 March, 2030 or till a new policy is announced
(3)until 31 March, 2032 or till a new policy is announced
(4)until 30 June, 2029 or till a new policy is announced
Explanation
The Rajasthan M-Sand (manufactured sand) Policy 2024 remains in force until 31 March 2029 or until a new policy is announced. It promotes M-Sand as an alternative to river sand (bajri).
Q55 · Economy of Rajasthan
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (New Industrial areas developed by RIICO in the year 2023-24) — List-II (Place)
A. Nadol — i. Udaipur
B. Dharmpura — ii. Jhalawar
C. Umriya — iii. Barmer
D. Maal ki Toos — iv. Pali
Codes :
(1)A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i✓ Correct answer
(3)A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
Explanation
RIICO's new industrial areas of 2023-24: Nadol is in Pali (A-iv), Dharmpura in Barmer (B-iii), Umriya in Jhalawar (C-ii) and Maal ki Toos in Udaipur (D-i).
Q56 · Economy
Which of the following statements are correct about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana ?
(i) To install Solar plants on one crore houses to provide upto 300 unit free electricity every month.
(ii) Provision of 30 percent subsidy for setting up rooftop solar plants.
(iii) 100 percent online system for registration, application, approval & grant.
(iv) Provision of loan at bank interest 4 percent to each applicant.
(1)(i) & (iv)
(2)(i), (ii) & (iii)
(3)(i) & (iii)✓ Correct answer
(4)(i), (iii) & (iv)
Explanation
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana (2024) aims to put rooftop solar on 1 crore houses, giving up to 300 units of free electricity a month, through a fully online process on the national portal. The subsidy is 60% of cost up to 2 kW (40% for the next 1 kW), not 30%, and the collateral-free loans are at about 7%, not 4%. So only (i) and (iii) are correct.
Q57 · Economy of Rajasthan
Who among the following are eligible for Aastha Scheme in Rajasthan ?
(1)Persons with specially abled category.
(2)Specially abled category persons with more than 40 percent disability.
(3)BPL card holders.
(4)Families in which 2 or more people are specially abled category with more than 40 percent disability.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Under Rajasthan's Aastha Yojana, families having two or more members with 40% or more disability are given benefits on the lines of BPL families (such as food security and other welfare benefits).
Q58 · Economy of Rajasthan
Mukhyamantri Svanidhi Yojana of Rajasthan aims to
(1)empower BPL families
(2)empower SC/ST families
(3)empower street vendors✓ Correct answer
(4)empower pregnant and lactating women
Explanation
Like the central PM SVANidhi, the Mukhyamantri Svanidhi Yojana of Rajasthan gives street vendors easy working-capital loans so they can restart and expand their businesses.
Q59 · Science & Technology
In cataract the natural lens becomes cloudy because of change in which of the following ?
(1)Protein✓ Correct answer
(2)Carbohydrate
(3)Fat
(4)Tear glands
Explanation
The eye lens is made mostly of transparent crystallin proteins. With age or other factors these proteins denature and clump together, making the lens cloudy (cataract).
Q60 · Science & Technology
Which of the following are units of the pressure ?
(A) bar (B) Pa (C) torr (D) atm
Choose the correct option :
(1)Only (B) and (D)
(2)Only (B), (C) and (D)
(3)Only (A), (B) and (D)
(4)All (A), (B), (C) and (D)✓ Correct answer
Explanation
All four are units of pressure: pascal (Pa, the SI unit = N/m²), bar (10⁵ Pa), atmosphere (1 atm = 101325 Pa) and torr (1/760 atm ≈ 133.3 Pa).
Q61 · Economy of Rajasthan
The main objective of "Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Programme (Phase-III)" is :
(1)to improve health services in urban areas.
(2)to improve school education in urban areas.
(3)to improve service delivery in water supply, sewerage and sanitation.✓ Correct answer
(4)to construct new roads.
Explanation
The ADB-assisted Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Programme (Phase III, under RUIDP) mainly aims to improve water supply, sewerage and sanitation services in selected towns of Rajasthan.
Q62 · Science & Technology
Among the following layers, identify the one which is used for wireless connection in IoT devices :
(1)Application Layer
(2)Perception Layer
(3)Network Layer✓ Correct answer
(4)Transport Layer
Explanation
In the IoT layered architecture, the Perception layer senses data (sensors), the Network layer connects devices and carries data over wireless links such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, Zigbee and cellular networks, and the Application layer delivers services to users. So wireless connection is handled by the Network layer.
Q63 · Science & Technology
What is the name of the man-portable air defence system developed by 'DRDO' to neutralize aerial threats ?
(1)Akash-NG
(2)QRSAM
(3)VL-SRSAM
(4)VSHORADS✓ Correct answer
Explanation
VSHORADS (Very Short Range Air Defence System) is DRDO's man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) for neutralising low-altitude aerial threats at short range. Akash-NG, QRSAM and VL-SRSAM are vehicle- or ship-based surface-to-air missile systems.
Q64 · Science & Technology
Which of the following statement is incorrect for Active Electronically Scanned Array Radar (AESA) ?
(1)It is not capable of tracking multiple targets.✓ Correct answer
(2)The radar features include wide band RF front end.
(3)It is solid-state active phased array fire control radar.
(4)It can be adapted for various types of fighter class of aircraft.
Explanation
An AESA (Active Electronically Scanned Array) radar steers its beams electronically and can track multiple targets at once, which is one of its main advantages. So the statement that it cannot track multiple targets is incorrect; the other statements describe the radar correctly.
Q65 · Science & Technology
The fourth generation biofuels are obtained from genetically modified :
(1)Archaebacteria
(2)Starch yielding crops
(3)Ligno-cellulose yielding crops
(4)Algae✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Biofuel generations: 1st from food crops (sugar, starch, oils), 2nd from lignocellulosic biomass, 3rd from algae, and 4th from genetically engineered organisms, especially GM algae designed for higher yield and carbon capture.
Q66 · Science & Technology
Regarding Artificial Intelligence (AI), identify the correct statements using the codes given below :
A. Machine learning is a subset of AI.
B. Supervised learning involves training a computer system without labelled input data.
C. Machines learn through trial and error, receiving rewards during reinforcement learning.
Codes :
(1)Only A and B
(2)Only A and C✓ Correct answer
(3)Only B and C
(4)A, B and C all statements are correct.
Explanation
Machine learning is a subset of AI (A correct), and in reinforcement learning an agent learns by trial and error through rewards and penalties (C correct). B is wrong: supervised learning uses labelled data; learning without labels is unsupervised learning.
Q67 · Science & Technology
Kwashiorkor, a form of malnutrition, is caused by deficiency of which of the following ?
(1)Selenium
(2)Protein✓ Correct answer
(3)Carbohydrates
(4)Chromium
Explanation
Kwashiorkor is caused by severe protein deficiency, usually when calorie intake is adequate. It shows as oedema (swelling), a pot belly and skin and hair changes. Marasmus results from deficiency of both protein and calories.
Q68 · Science & Technology
Which of the following artificial sweeteners have the highest sweetness value in comparison to sucrose ?
(1)Aspartame
(2)Alitame✓ Correct answer
(3)Sucrolose
(4)Saccharin
Explanation
Compared with sucrose, alitame is about 2000 times sweeter, sucralose about 600 times, saccharin about 300–550 times and aspartame about 180–200 times. So alitame has the highest sweetness value.
Q69 · Science & Technology
Which of the following is a micro-mineral found in human body fluids / tissues ?
(1)Phosphorus
(2)Sulphur
(3)Iodine✓ Correct answer
(4)Magnesium
Explanation
Micro-minerals (trace elements) are needed in very small amounts; examples are iodine, iron, zinc, copper and selenium. Phosphorus, sulphur and magnesium are macro-minerals needed in larger amounts.
Q70 · Science & Technology
Select the incorrect set of "the typical Vector – Disease caused – Type of Pathogen".
(1)Aedes – Chikungunya – Bacteria✓ Correct answer
(2)Culex – Lymphatic Filariasis – Parasite
(3)Anopheles – Malaria – Parasite
(4)Aedes – Dengue – Virus
Explanation
Chikungunya, spread by Aedes mosquitoes, is caused by a virus (chikungunya virus, an alphavirus), not a bacterium. The other sets are correct: Culex spreads filariasis (a nematode parasite), Anopheles spreads malaria (Plasmodium) and Aedes spreads dengue (a virus).
Q71 · Science & Technology
According to Central Pollution Control Board, the Air Quality category for IND-AQI range of 101 – 200 is
(1)Good
(2)Satisfactory
(3)Moderate✓ Correct answer
(4)Poor
Explanation
CPCB's National AQI categories: 0–50 Good, 51–100 Satisfactory, 101–200 Moderate, 201–300 Poor, 301–400 Very Poor and 401–500 Severe. So 101–200 is 'Moderate'.
Q72 · World & Indian Geography
Select the incorrect statement from the following :
(1)El Nino and La Nina are a kind of storm.✓ Correct answer
(2)During El Nino, there are fewer phytoplanktons off the coast.
(3)During La Nina trade winds are stronger than usual.
(4)El Nino & La Nina are the climate patterns.
Explanation
El Niño and La Niña are opposite phases of the ENSO ocean-atmosphere climate pattern in the Pacific, not storms. During El Niño weaker upwelling reduces phytoplankton off the South American coast, and during La Niña the trade winds are stronger than usual.
Q73 · Science & Technology
India's first Nano-cellulose plant developed by ICAR – CIRCOT Mumbai is related to
(1)Cotton✓ Correct answer
(2)Jute
(3)Bamboo
(4)Rice
Explanation
ICAR–CIRCOT (Central Institute for Research on Cotton Technology), Mumbai set up India's first nanocellulose pilot plant, which produces nanocellulose from cotton (cotton linters and cotton biomass).
Q74 · Science & Technology
Red List of IUCN is known as
(1)Mirror of Life
(2)Life Thermometer
(3)Hydrometer of Earth
(4)Barometer of Life✓ Correct answer
Explanation
The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is called the 'Barometer of Life' because it measures the extinction risk and the changing status of the world's biodiversity.
Q75 · Geography of Rajasthan
Select the incorrect statement regarding the Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Project (Phase-2).
(1)It is assisted by Japanese International Cooperation Agency (JICA).
(2)It covers 18 districts and 8 wild-life sanctuaries.✓ Correct answer
(3)Abheda and Machia Biological Parks have been developed under the project.
(4)Water Conservation has also been incorporated in the project.
Explanation
The JICA-assisted Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Project (Phase-2) covers 15 districts and 7 wildlife sanctuaries/protected areas, not 18 districts and 8 sanctuaries. Abheda (Kota) and Machia (Jodhpur) biological parks and water-conservation works were taken up under it.
Q76 · Economy of Rajasthan
Match Column-I (Location of the Center of Excellence) with Column-II (the horticultural crop) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Column-I — Column-II
A. Bassi — (i) Mango
B. Sagra Bhojka — (ii) Custard-apple
C. Devrawas — (iii) Pomegranate
D. Khemri — (iv) Guava
(v) Date-palm
(1)A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v)
(2)A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3)A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)✓ Correct answer
(4)A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i)
Explanation
Rajasthan's horticulture Centres of Excellence: Bassi (Jaipur) – pomegranate (Indo-Israel CoE), Sagra-Bhojka (Jaisalmer) – date palm, Devdawas (Tonk) – guava and Khemri (Dholpur) – mango. Hence A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i).
Q77 · Economy
Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) under 17 global goals given by United Nations specifically focuses on "Life on Land", aiming to protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems ?
(1)SDG 13
(2)SDG 14
(3)SDG 15✓ Correct answer
(4)SDG 16
Explanation
SDG 15 is 'Life on Land' – protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, forests, land and biodiversity. SDG 13 is Climate Action, SDG 14 Life below Water and SDG 16 Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions.
Q78 · Science & Technology
"Ganga", India's first cloned cow born in March 2023 belongs to which breed ?
(1)Sahiwal
(2)Gir✓ Correct answer
(3)Tharparkar
(4)Nagauri
Explanation
'Ganga', India's first cloned Gir cow calf, was born in March 2023 at ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), Karnal. Gir is an indigenous breed from Gujarat's Gir forest region.
Q79 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
In the question given below, statement and two assumptions (I) and (II) are given. Choose the correct option from the following :
Statement : In order to replenish the nutrients in the soil, it is important to grow different types of crops in every alternate season.
Assumptions :
(I) A crop can never be grown for the second time in the same field.
(II) If a different crop is grown in the successive season, no additional nutrients such as fertilizers are required to be added to the soil at all.
(1)Only assumption (I) is implicit.
(2)Only assumption (II) is implicit.
(3)Both assumptions (I) and (II) are implicit.
(4)Neither assumption (I) nor assumption (II) is implicit.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
The statement only says crops should be rotated to replenish soil nutrients. It does not assume a crop can never be grown again in the same field (I is too absolute), nor that fertilizers are never needed (II is too absolute). So neither assumption is implicit.
Q80 · Current Affairs
Which of the following village of Rajasthan is transforming itself to a zero-waste model with the help of Green Technology intervention ?
(1)Menar
(2)Devmali
(3)Naurangabad
(4)Aandhi✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Aandhi, a village in Jaipur district (about 43 km from Jaipur), is becoming a zero-waste village through DST-supported green technology interventions – a bio-methanation plant, vermifiltration, constructed wetlands and a resource recovery centre.
Q81 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
In the question given below, three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given statements to be true. Read the conclusions and given the answer.
Statements :
Some symbols are figures.
All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions :
(I) Some graphics are figures.
(II) Some symbols are pictures.
(1)Neither Conclusion (I) nor Conclusion (II) follows.
(2)Both Conclusion (I) and (II) follow.
(3)Only Conclusion (I) follows.✓ Correct answer
(4)Only Conclusion (II) follows.
Explanation
Some symbols are figures and all symbols are graphics, so those symbols that are figures are also graphics: 'Some graphics are figures' (I) follows. All symbols are graphics and no graphic is a picture, so no symbol is a picture; II does not follow.
Q82 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
A statement is followed by two arguments (I) and (II). Choose which of the argument(s) is/are strong.
Statement : Should every house use solar energy in order to reduce the need of electricity in Rajasthan ?
Arguments :
(I) Yes, it will conserve our natural resources and it will promote environmental compatibility.
(II) No, solar panels are costly and all the house owners cannot afford it without subsidy.
(1)Only argument (I) is strong.✓ Correct answer
(2)Only argument (II) is strong.
(3)Both of the arguments are strong.
(4)Neither argument (I) nor argument (II) is strong.
Explanation
Argument I gives a valid, relevant reason (conserving natural resources, environment-friendly energy). Argument II is weak because high cost is a practical hurdle that can be addressed (e.g., by subsidy, as the argument itself admits); it is not a reason against the policy itself. So only I is strong.
Q83 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
Eight equidistant points lie on a circle. Using these points as vertices, right angled triangles are drawn such that one side of each triangle is diameter of the circle. The number of such possible right angled triangles is :
(1)8
(2)16
(3)20
(4)24✓ Correct answer
Explanation
8 equidistant points form 4 diameters. An angle in a semicircle is 90°, so each diameter with any of the other 6 points gives a right triangle: 4 × 6 = 24.
Q84 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
Next term in the following sequence is :
2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
(1)210
(2)252✓ Correct answer
(3)258
(4)270
Explanation
Terms follow n³ + n²: 1+1=2, 8+4=12, 27+9=36, 64+16=80, 125+25=150, so the next is 216+36 = 252.
Q85 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
In a coding system, 'PROJECT' is written as 'CEOPRT' and 'PLANE' is written as 'ELNP'. Then, in the same coding system the 'ORGANISED' will be written as :
(1)ADEGIOSR
(2)ADEGIROS
(3)ADEGOIRS
(4)ADEGIORS✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Rule: drop the middle letter and write the rest in alphabetical order. PROJECT – drop J → CEOPRT; PLANE – drop A → ELNP. ORGANISED (9 letters) – drop the 5th letter N → A, D, E, G, I, O, R, S = ADEGIORS.
Q86 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
In the question given below, a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered (I) and (II). Choose the correct option from the following :
Statement : There has been less voting in this Lok Sabha election as compared to previous Lok Sabha election.
Course of action :
(I) The election commission should announce re-election for Lok Sabha.
(II) Election commission should cancel the voting rights of the people who did not vote in this Lok Sabha election.
(1)Only (I) follows.
(2)Only (II) follows.
(3)Neither (I) nor (II) follows.✓ Correct answer
(4)Both (I) and (II) follow.
Explanation
Lower turnout is not a ground for re-election, so I is impractical; cancelling voting rights of non-voters is undemocratic and unconstitutional, so II is also wrong. A sensible course would be voter-awareness efforts. Neither follows.
Q87 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
Mr. X starts walking towards south from point A. After walking 20 m., he reaches at point B. Now he turns left and walks 20 m and reaches at point C. Now he turns 45° anticlockwise, walks a distance 20√3 m and reaches at the point D. What is the shortest distance between point A and point D ?
(1)20√3 m
(2)40 m
(3)20√5 m✓ Correct answer
(4)40√3 m
Explanation
Take A = (0,0). South 20 m → B (0,−20); facing south, left is east, so C = (20,−20). Facing east, 45° anticlockwise is north-east; 20√3 m gives D = (20+10√6, −20+10√6). AD² = (20+10√6)² + (10√6−20)² = 2(400+600) = 2000, so AD = 20√5 m.
Q88 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
A Venn diagram is drawn followed by the four choices. Select the correct choice which represents the given diagram.
(1)Teacher, Mother, Doctor✓ Correct answer
(2)Universe, Planets, Stars
(3)Income Tax, Sales Tax, Service Tax
(4)Library, Books, Furniture
Explanation
The figure shows three circles, each overlapping both others, with a common region for all three. A person can be a teacher, a mother and a doctor at once, or any two of these, or just one – exactly this pattern. Planets/stars lie wholly inside the universe; the three taxes are separate; furniture is not a subset relation like books in a library.
Q89 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
Images of consonants of the English alphabet (capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images which do not look like their original shapes ?
(1)13
(2)14✓ Correct answer
(3)15
(4)16
Explanation
There are 21 consonants. Capital letters symmetric about a vertical axis look the same in a mirror; among consonants these are H, M, T, V, W, X, Y (7). So 21 − 7 = 14 consonants look different.
Q90 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. B is married to C. F is the mother of E and D is the daughter of F. A's daughter is E and C's son is A. There are two married couples in the family. Which of the following is correct ?
(1)B is grandfather of E.
(2)C is mother of A.
(3)C is grandmother of D.
(4)E is granddaughter of C.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
A is C's son and E is A's daughter, so E is C's granddaughter. F (mother of E) is A's wife; the two couples are B–C and A–F, and D is F's daughter. The genders of B and C are not given, so options 1, 2 and 3 cannot be confirmed.
Q91 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
A housewife has 1000 ml of mixture that contains milk and water in the ratio of 3:1. She adds 250 ml of mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:2 in it. Then she uses 250 ml of the combined mixture to make curd. How much of pure milk is left in the mixture remained ?
(1)1000 ml
(2)912 ml
(3)750 ml
(4)720 ml✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Milk in 1000 ml (3:1) = 750 ml; milk in 250 ml (3:2) = 150 ml. Total 1250 ml with 900 ml milk (72%). After removing 250 ml, 1000 ml remain with 72% milk = 720 ml.
Q92 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
A reduction of 21% in the price of rice enables a person to buy 10.5 kg more for ₹ 1,000. What is the reduced price of rice per kg ?
(1)₹ 20✓ Correct answer
(2)₹ 30
(3)₹ 40
(4)₹ 15
Explanation
A 21% price cut saves 21% of ₹1,000 = ₹210, which buys the extra 10.5 kg. Reduced price = 210 ÷ 10.5 = ₹20 per kg.
Q93 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
The simple interest on a sum of ₹ 8,000 at a certain rate percent per annum for 3 years is ₹ 3,600. If the interest is compounded 8-monthly on the same sum at the same interest rate, then total compound interest after 2 years will be
(1)₹ 10,248
(2)₹ 10,648
(3)₹ 2,248
(4)₹ 2,648✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Rate = 3600×100/(8000×3) = 15% p.a. Compounded every 8 months, rate per period = 15 × 8/12 = 10%, and 2 years = 3 periods. Amount = 8000 × 1.1³ = ₹10,648, so CI = ₹2,648.
Q94 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units. A rectangle is constructed, which is equal in area to the triangle. It has a width of 10 units, then the perimeter of this rectangle is :
(1)30 units
(2)26 units✓ Correct answer
(3)13 units
(4)40 units
Explanation
5² + 12² = 13², so it is a right triangle with area ½ × 5 × 12 = 30. Rectangle: width 10, length 30/10 = 3; perimeter = 2(10+3) = 26 units.
Q95 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
How many triangles are there in the following figure ?
(1)12
(2)14
(3)16✓ Correct answer
(4)18
Explanation
The figure has 8 line segments: the left vertical side, the short top and bottom edges, the half-width middle line, the two crossing diagonals of the left strip, and the two long sides meeting at the right apex. Counting every set of three segments that meet pairwise at three distinct points (verified by a systematic count) gives 16 triangles.
Q96 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 49. It was later discovered that three observations taken as 40, 20, 50 were actually 60, 70, 80 respectively. The correct mean is
(1)48
(2)49.33
(3)50✓ Correct answer
(4)49.5
Explanation
Wrong total = 100 × 49 = 4900. Correction = (60+70+80) − (40+20+50) = 210 − 110 = 100. Correct total 5000, so correct mean = 5000/100 = 50.
Q97 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
Ten different letters of alphabets are given. Words with five letters are formed from these given letters. Then, the number of words which have atleast one repeated letter is :
(1)69760✓ Correct answer
(2)30240
(3)99748
(4)99784
Explanation
Total 5-letter words with repetition allowed = 10⁵ = 100000. Words with all letters different = ¹⁰P₅ = 10×9×8×7×6 = 30240. At least one repeated letter = 100000 − 30240 = 69760.
Q98 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
The probability of getting the sum as a prime number, when two dice are thrown together, is :
(1)1/2
(2)1/3
(3)5/12✓ Correct answer
(4)7/12
Explanation
Of 36 outcomes, prime sums: 2 (1 way), 3 (2), 5 (4), 7 (6), 11 (2) = 15 ways. Probability = 15/36 = 5/12.
Q99 · Current Affairs
Recently which app is launched by Jaipur Municipal Corporation, Heritage for citizens to report civic issues and government to analyze, track, manage & solve ?
(1)Jaipur 300
(2)Jaipur 301
(3)Jaipur 311✓ Correct answer
(4)Jaipur 315
Explanation
Jaipur Municipal Corporation Heritage launched the 'Jaipur 311' app so that citizens can report civic problems and the corporation can analyse, track, manage and resolve them. 311 is the internationally used non-emergency civic helpline number.
Q100 · Reasoning, Mental Ability & Maths
The pie-chart provided below gives the distribution of land areas used for various food crops :
Choose the correct option from the following which uses more than 50% of the total area.
(1)Wheat, Barley and Sorghum
(2)Rice, Wheat and Sorghum✓ Correct answer
(3)Rice, Maize and Barley
(4)Bajra, Maize and Rice
Explanation
50% of the area = 180° of the pie. Rice + Wheat + Sorghum = 82° + 72° + 27° = 181° > 180°. The others: Wheat+Barley+Sorghum = 125°, Rice+Maize+Barley = 153°, Bajra+Maize+Rice = 145°.
Q101 · Current Affairs
Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly by-election – 2024 ?
(1)Minimum turnout (in percent) in by-election took place in Dausa.
(2)Out of 7 in 3 assembly constituencies, the voting percentage of women was more than that of men.
(3)3127 voters voted through home voting.
(4)Maximum ballot papers for service employed voters were issued in Khinvsar assembly constituency.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
As per RPSC's final key, statement 4 is the incorrect one: in the November 2024 by-elections, the largest number of service-voter ballots was not issued in Khinvsar (Jhunjhunu, a constituency with a large number of armed-forces personnel, is the likely leader). Dausa recorded the lowest turnout among the seven seats.
Q102 · Current Affairs
Choose the correct statement with regards to Guru Ghasidas – Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve.
(1)It is situated in Madhya Pradesh.
(2)It is notified as 54th Tiger Reserve of India in November 2024.
(3)It is spread over 1829 sq. kms.
(4)It is the third largest tiger reserve in the country.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Guru Ghasidas–Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is in Chhattisgarh (not MP), was notified in November 2024 as India's 56th tiger reserve and covers about 2,829 sq km, making it the third largest tiger reserve in the country (after Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam and Manas).
Q103 · Current Affairs
Which of the following Institution has been engaged by the Competition Commission of India in 2024, to conduct a market study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition ?
(1)Indian School of Business
(2)Management Development Institute Society✓ Correct answer
(3)Institute of Rural Management, Anand
(4)IIM, Indore
Explanation
In 2024 the Competition Commission of India engaged the Management Development Institute (MDI) Society, Gurugram, to conduct its market study on Artificial Intelligence and competition.
Q104 · Economy of Rajasthan
The 'Rajasthan MSME Policy – 2024' will remain in force until which of the following date ?
(1)31 March, 2028
(2)31 March, 2030
(3)31 March, 2029✓ Correct answer
(4)31 March, 2031
Explanation
The Rajasthan MSME Policy 2024, launched along with other policies around the Rising Rajasthan summit (December 2024), remains in force until 31 March 2029.
Q105 · Current Affairs
Recently Yamandu Orsi has been elected as the President of which country ?
(1)Paraguay
(2)Uruguay✓ Correct answer
(3)Venezuela
(4)Guyana
Explanation
Yamandú Orsi of the left-wing Broad Front (Frente Amplio) won Uruguay's presidential run-off in November 2024 and took office in March 2025.
Q106 · Current Affairs
The Submarine Cable Resilience Summit in February, 2025 will be held at :
(1)Switzerland
(2)Nigeria✓ Correct answer
(3)France
(4)Armenia
Explanation
The International Submarine Cable Resilience Summit (by ITU and ICPC) was held in Abuja, Nigeria, in February 2025.
Q107 · Current Affairs
Name the writer from South Korea who has won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2024 ?
(1)Nihon Hidankyo
(2)David Baker
(3)Annie Ernauxe
(4)Han Kang✓ Correct answer
Explanation
South Korean author Han Kang won the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature 'for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas'. Nihon Hidankyo won the 2024 Peace Prize, David Baker the Chemistry Prize, and Annie Ernaux the 2022 Literature Prize.
Q108 · Current Affairs
Match the Column I and II regarding National awards for the empowerment of persons with disabilities 2024 :
Column-I (Sarvshreshth Divyangjan) — Column-II (Field of outstanding work)
(a) Ananya Bijesh — (i) Art and Culture
(b) Prateek Khandelwal — (ii) Music
(c) Priyanka Deepak Dabade — (iii) Accessibility
Codes :
(1)(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(2)(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
(3)(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
(4)(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)✓ Correct answer
Explanation
In the National Awards for Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities 2024 (Sarvshreshth Divyangjan), Ananya Bijesh was honoured for music, Prateek Khandelwal for accessibility work, and Priyanka Deepak Dabade for art and culture.
Q109 · Current Affairs
Recently the Government of India has approved inclusion of some of the languages in the list of classical languages. Now, how many languages in total are having the status of classical languages ?
(1)6
(2)8
(3)10
(4)11✓ Correct answer
Explanation
In October 2024 the Union Cabinet granted classical status to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali. With the earlier six (Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Odia), India now has 11 classical languages.
Q110 · Current Affairs
The I Edition of Joint Table Top Exercise (CINBAX) between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army was held at :
(1)Mumbai
(2)Pune✓ Correct answer
(3)Jodhpur
(4)Bhubaneswar
Explanation
The first edition of CINBAX, the India–Cambodia joint table-top exercise, was held at the Foreign Training Node, Pune, in December 2024.
Q111 · Current Affairs
Where was the India – Norway business round table held on 8th December, 2024 ?
(1)Jaipur
(2)New Delhi
(3)Chennai
(4)Mumbai✓ Correct answer
Explanation
On 8 December 2024 Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal held the India–Norway business roundtable with a Norwegian industry delegation in Mumbai, focusing on the India–EFTA TEPA.
Q112 · Current Affairs
Which organization has recently launched an upgraded Mobile App "Suvidha 2.0" ?
(1)Election Commission of India✓ Correct answer
(2)Supreme Court of India
(3)Central Bureau of Investigation
(4)Ministry of Aayush
Explanation
In October 2024 the Election Commission of India launched the upgraded 'Suvidha 2.0' app, letting candidates and parties apply for, track and download campaign permissions from mobile phones.
Q113 · Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about recently inaugurated Asia's largest and world's highest imaging Cherenkov Observatory, at Hanle, Ladakh :
I. It was inaugurated by Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission.
II. It is located at an altitude of 5100 metres.
III. The telescope is built by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre with the support of Electronic Corporation of India and other industry partners.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1)Only I and II are correct.
(2)I, II and III are correct.
(3)Only I and III are correct.✓ Correct answer
(4)Only II and III are correct.
Explanation
The MACE (Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment) telescope at Hanle was inaugurated in October 2024 by Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission, and was built by BARC with ECIL and other industry partners. It stands at about 4,300 m, not 5,100 m, so statement II is wrong.
Q114 · Current Affairs
Who among the following from India, co-chaired with Mr. Atsushi Mimura, at the 2nd India – Japan Finance Dialogue held at Tokyo in September, 2024 ?
(1)Tuhinkanta Pandey
(2)Dammu Ravi
(3)Ajay Seth✓ Correct answer
(4)Vikram Misri
Explanation
The 2nd India–Japan Finance Dialogue (Tokyo, September 2024) was co-chaired by Ajay Seth, Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, and Atsushi Mimura, Vice-Minister of Finance for International Affairs, Japan.
Q115 · Current Affairs
Khelo India Youth Games 2025 will be hosted by which of the following state ?
(1)Rajasthan
(2)Bihar✓ Correct answer
(3)Tamil Nadu
(4)Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
The Khelo India Youth Games 2025 (7th edition) were hosted by Bihar, with events in Patna, Rajgir and other cities.
Q116 · Current Affairs
Deleted by RPSC — marks given to all
How many medals did India win at the 2024 ISSF (International Shooting Sport Federation) World Cup in shooting ?
(1)2
(2)3
(3)4
(4)5
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. Likely reason: several ISSF World Cup stages were held in 2024 (plus the World Cup Final), so the question did not specify which event and had no single correct count.
Q117 · Current Affairs
Consider the following statements regarding to 38th National Games 2025 and choose the correct option :
Statement (A) : It will be hosted by Uttarakhand.
Statement (B) : The National Games will feature 28 sporting disciplines and 4 demonstration events.
(1)Both Statements (A) and (B) are correct.
(2)Only Statement (A) is correct.✓ Correct answer
(3)Only Statement (B) is correct.
(4)Both Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect.
Explanation
The 38th National Games (28 January – 14 February 2025) were hosted by Uttarakhand, so A is correct. They featured 32 competitive sporting disciplines plus 4 demonstration sports (Kalaripayattu, Yogasana, Mallakhamb, Rafting), not 28, so B is wrong.
Q118 · Current Affairs
How many gold and bronze medals has Rajasthan won in 5th National Para Shooting Championship held at Pune in November 2024 ?
(1)16 gold and 11 bronze
(2)11 gold and 7 bronze
(3)16 gold and 7 bronze✓ Correct answer
(4)11 gold and 16 bronze
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, Rajasthan's para shooters won 16 gold and 7 bronze medals at the 5th National Para Shooting Championship held in Pune in November 2024.
Q119 · Current Affairs
'Divith Reddy Adulla' winner of World Cadet Under-8 Championship 2024 is related to which game ?
(1)Swimming
(2)Chess✓ Correct answer
(3)Table Tennis
(4)Gymnastics
Explanation
Divith Reddy Adulla of Telangana won the World Cadet Chess Championship 2024 (Under-8 open category) held in Italy.
Q120 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Which of the following archaeological sites was identified by archaeologist T.H. Handley as a Buddhist town ?
(1)Bhandarej
(2)Budha Pushkar
(3)Bairath
(4)Naliasar✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Naliasar, about 6 km from Sambhar (Jaipur), was trial-excavated by Col. T.H. Hendley (Handley) in 1884; he identified it as a Buddhist town. It was later excavated by Daya Ram Sahni (1936–38), revealing occupation from about the 3rd century BC.
Q121 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements about Rao Chunda of Marwar and choose the correct option from below :
A. Rao Chunda obtained Mandore in dowry.
B. Rao Ranmal ascended the throne immediately after Rao Chunda's death.
(1)Only A is true.✓ Correct answer
(2)Only B is true.
(3)A and B both are true.
(4)A and B both are false.
Explanation
Rao Chunda received Mandore in dowry from the Inda Pratiharas, so A is true. After Chunda's death his son Kanha (and then Satta) ruled before Ranmal took the throne, so B is false.
Q122 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
According to "Rao-Jetsi-Ro-Chhanda", who among the following was defeated by Rao Jaitsi, the ruler of Bikaner ?
(1)Humayun
(2)Kamran✓ Correct answer
(3)Shershah
(4)Akbar
Explanation
'Rao Jaitsi Ro Chhand' by Bithu Suja describes Rao Jaitsi of Bikaner defeating Kamran, Babur's son, who attacked Bikaner in 1534.
Q123 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Which of the following was/were associated in the excavation of Ojiyana ?
A. R.C. Agrawal
B. B.R. Meena
C. Alok Tripathi
Codes :
(1)Only A
(2)Only C
(3)A and B
(4)B and C✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Ojiyana (Bhilwara), an Ahar-culture site, was excavated in 1999–2000 by B.R. Meena and Alok Tripathi of the Archaeological Survey of India. R.C. Agrawal is associated with Gilund/Ganeshwar, not Ojiyana.
Q124 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements related to Bijolia Peasant Movement :
A. Vijay Singh Pathik had gone to Wardha to meet Gandhiji to give information regarding the Bijolia Peasant Movement.
B. Prayag's Abhyudaya and Calcutta's Bharat Mitra newspaper regularly published news related to the Bijolia Peasant Movement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1)Only A is correct.
(2)Only B is correct.✓ Correct answer
(3)Both A and B are correct.
(4)Neither A nor B is correct.
Explanation
Prayag's Abhyudaya and Calcutta's Bharat Mitra (along with Kanpur's Pratap) regularly published Bijolia news, so B is correct. Vijay Singh Pathik met Gandhiji in Bombay (not Wardha), after which Gandhiji sent Mahadev Desai to inquire, so A is incorrect.
Q125 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
The S.A. Sudhalkar report of 1945 is associated with which of the following Princely State ?
(1)Jodhpur✓ Correct answer
(2)Bikaner
(3)Udaipur
(4)Jaipur
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, the S.A. Sudhalkar report of 1945 relates to Jodhpur (Marwar) princely state, where it was prepared during the administrative and constitutional reforms of the 1940s.
Q126 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Which of the following statements is not true regarding Walterkrit Rajput Hitkarini Sabha ?
(1)It was established in the year 1888, by the efforts of colonel C.K.M. Walter.
(2)It was aimed to make reforms for Rajputs and Dalits of Rajasthan.✓ Correct answer
(3)Its first meeting was organized at Ajmer.
(4)The Sabha made social regulations to achieve its aims.
Explanation
The Walterkrit Rajputra Hitkarini Sabha was formed in 1888–89 at the initiative of AGG Col. C.K.M. Walter, held its first meeting at Ajmer and framed rules on marriage age and marriage/funeral expenses. It aimed at social reform among Rajputs (and Charans), not Dalits, so statement 2 is untrue.
Q127 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
The famous temple built by Mathandev at Rajorgarh was dedicated to which of the following deities ?
(1)Shiva✓ Correct answer
(2)Vishnu
(3)Surya
(4)Mahishasur Mardini
Explanation
At Rajorgarh (ancient Parangar, Alwar), the Badgujar ruler Mathanadeva built the Neelkanth Mahadev temple in the 10th century, dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Q128 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements about the folk instrument 'Chautara' and choose the correct option from below :
A. It is a four stringed instrument.
B. It is generally used in singing bhajans of Ramdev ji.
(1)Only A is true.
(2)Only B is true.
(3)A and B both are true.✓ Correct answer
(4)A and B both are false.
Explanation
Chautara (also called Tandura) is a four-stringed folk instrument, played mainly by the Kamad community while singing bhajans of Baba Ramdev. Both statements are true.
Q129 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Which of the following options is not rightly matched ?
(1)Prithvi Raj Raso – Chandarbardai
(2)Bisaldev Raso – Narpati
(3)Khuman Raso – Karnidan✓ Correct answer
(4)Shatrusal Raso – Dungarsingh
Explanation
Khuman Raso was written by Dalpat Vijay, not Karnidan (Karnidan Kaviya wrote 'Suraj Prakash'). Prithviraj Raso – Chand Bardai, Bisaldev Raso – Narpati Nalh and Shatrusal Raso – Dungarsi are correct pairs.
Q130 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Match List – I with List – II regarding famous painting styles and their painters of Rajasthan and select the correct option :
List – I — List – II
A. Kishangarh — i. Sahibdeen
B. Bikaner — ii. Nihalchand
C. Mewar — iii. Ali Raza
D. Marwar — iv. Shivdas
Codes :
(1)A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2)A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv✓ Correct answer
(3)A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4)A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
Explanation
Nihalchand painted Bani Thani for the Kishangarh school; Ali Raza (Usta) was an early master of the Bikaner school; Sahibdin was the leading painter of Mewar; Shivdas Bhati is associated with Marwar painting. So A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv.
Q131 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements about Saint Laldas and choose the correct option from below :
A. Saint Laldas remained unmarried throughout his life.
B. After the death of Saint Laldas, a temple was built at his Samadhi place.
(1)Only A is true.
(2)Only B is true.✓ Correct answer
(3)A and B both are true.
(4)A and B both are false.
Explanation
Saint Laldas, founder of the Laldasi sect of Mewat (Alwar–Bharatpur), was a married householder (wife Mogri), so A is false. A temple stands at his samadhi at Sherpur (Alwar), where a fair is held, so B is true.
Q132 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Which of the following colours is 'Kasumal', which is used in the costumes of Rajasthan ?
(1)Red✓ Correct answer
(2)Yellow
(3)Pink
(4)Saffron
Explanation
Kasumal (kasumal/kusumbal) is the red colour obtained from kusum (safflower) flowers, popular in Rajasthani women's dresses and odhnis.
Q133 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
Consider the following statements about Matsya Union's Prime Minister Shobaram and choose the correct option from below :
A. He left his legal profession during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
B. He was the member of the Cabinet of Heeralal Shastri.
(1)Only A is true.
(2)Only B is true.✓ Correct answer
(3)A and B both are true.
(4)A and B both are false.
Explanation
Shobharam Kumawat of Alwar, Prime Minister of the Matsya Union (1948), later served as a minister in Heeralal Shastri's cabinet of the United State of Greater Rajasthan (1949), so B is true. As per RPSC's key, statement A is not accepted – he is not recorded as having given up legal practice during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Q134 · History, Art & Culture of Rajasthan
For which of the following the words Aadi (आड़ी), Hiyali (हीयाली) are popular in Rajasthani language ?
(1)Idioms
(2)Proverb
(3)Phad
(4)Riddles✓ Correct answer
Explanation
In Rajasthani, 'Aadi' and 'Hiyali' are terms for riddles (paheli), a popular part of folk literature used for amusement and testing wit.
Q135 · Indian History
Which of the following titles was adopted by the Kadphises Second of Kushan dynasty ?
(1)Sakari
(2)Sarvalokeshwar✓ Correct answer
(3)Mahakshatrap
(4)Singh Chandra
Explanation
Vima Kadphises (Kadphises II), a Shiva devotee, used titles such as 'Maheshvara' and 'Sarvaloka-ishvara' (Lord of all the world) on his coins. Mahakshatrap was a Shaka satrap title.
Q136 · Indian History
Consider the following statements about Stupas and choose the correct option from below :
A. The word 'Stupa' is an architectural term and means something which is raised up by accumulation.
B. The custom of erecting 'Stupas' as a form of memorial to the dead was pre-Buddhist.
(1)Only A is true.
(2)Only B is true.
(3)A and B both are true.✓ Correct answer
(4)A and B both are false.
Explanation
'Stupa' (from Sanskrit stup, to heap) means a structure raised by accumulation, i.e., a mound. Burial mounds as memorials to the dead existed before the Buddha; Buddhism adopted and developed the custom. Both statements are true.
Q137 · Indian History
Which of the following Buddhist texts were written in Sanskrit language ? Choose the correct option from below :
A. Divyavadan
B. Deepvansha
C. Mahavansha
D. Aryamanjushree Moolkalp
(1)A, B
(2)B, C
(3)A, D✓ Correct answer
(4)A, C
Explanation
Divyavadana and Arya Manjushri Mulakalpa are Buddhist texts in Sanskrit. Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa, the Sri Lankan chronicles, are in Pali.
Q138 · Indian History
Consider the following statements related to Aajivaka Sect :
A. Belief in Determinism
B. The order of reincarnation can be changed.
C. Belief in Austerity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(1)Only A is correct.
(2)Only B is correct.
(3)A and B are correct.
(4)A and C are correct.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
The Ajivikas (Makkhali Gosala) believed in Niyati – strict determinism – so the cycle of rebirth cannot be changed by effort (B is wrong). They practised severe austerity. Hence A and C.
Q139 · Indian History
Which of the following monuments were built by Emperor Shershah ?
A. Sasaram Tomb
B. Kila-E-Kuhn Mosque
C. Tomb of Sikandara
D. Jama Masjid
(1)A, B✓ Correct answer
(2)A, C
(3)A, D
(4)B, D
Explanation
Sher Shah built his own tomb at Sasaram and the Qila-i-Kuhna mosque in Purana Qila, Delhi. The tomb at Sikandra is Akbar's, and Delhi's Jama Masjid was built by Shah Jahan.
Q140 · Indian History
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Bhakti Movement ?
(1)Vallabhacharya established Pushtimarga.
(2)Nimbarka propounded the Philosophy of Dvaitadvait.
Madhvacharya propounded Dvaita (dualism) and taught Saguna bhakti of Vishnu, not Nirguna bhakti, so statement 3 is incorrect. Vallabha – Pushtimarg, Nimbarka – Dvaitadvaita and Ramananda – Rama bhakti are correct.
Q141 · Indian History
Who painted the famous image of Bharat Mata to visually associate the identity of India, as a Nation ?
(1)Gagnendranath
(2)Abnindranath✓ Correct answer
(3)Bankim Chandra
(4)Rabindranath Tagore
Explanation
Abanindranath Tagore painted 'Bharat Mata' (1905, during the Swadeshi movement), depicting India as a four-armed saffron-clad woman – an early visual image of the nation.
Q142 · Indian History
In which language did the poet Mallanarya write the texts named "Bhava Chinta Ratna" and "Veerasaivamrita" in the court of Krishandev Ray ?
(1)Sanskrit
(2)Tamil
(3)Telugu
(4)Kannada✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Mallanarya of Gubbi, a Veerashaiva poet in Krishnadeva Raya's court, wrote 'Bhava Chinta Ratna' and 'Veerashaivamrita' in Kannada.
Q143 · Indian History
Who among the following was appointed as the chairman of Secondary Education Commission by Government of India in 1952 ?
(1)S. Radhakrishnan
(2)D.S. Kothari
(3)P.C. Mahalanobis
(4)Laxman Swami Mudaliar✓ Correct answer
Explanation
The Secondary Education Commission (1952–53) was chaired by Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar. S. Radhakrishnan headed the University Education Commission (1948) and D.S. Kothari the Education Commission (1964–66).
Q144 · World & Indian Geography
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Desert) — List – II (Location)
A. Gobi — i. Southern Africa
B. Patagonia — ii. Asia
C. Victoria — iii. South America
D. Kalahari — iv. Australia
Codes :
(1)A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i✓ Correct answer
(2)A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(3)A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
Explanation
Gobi – Asia (Mongolia/China); Patagonia – South America (Argentina); Great Victoria – Australia; Kalahari – Southern Africa (Botswana). So A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i.
Q145 · World & Indian Geography
Which is not an area of Mediterranean type of Agriculture ?
(1)California
(2)Central Chile
(3)Northern Australia✓ Correct answer
(4)Southern part of South Africa
Explanation
Mediterranean agriculture occurs in regions with dry summers and winter rain around 30°–45° latitude: California, central Chile, the Cape region of South Africa and south/south-west Australia. Northern Australia has a tropical climate.
Q146 · Indian History
Read the following statements related to the liberal phase of Indian National Movement (1885 – 1905 A.D.) :
A. Supported the rich democratic and scientific culture of modern Europe.
B. Strongly criticized the Economic aspect of British imperialism.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1)Only A is true.
(2)Only B is true.
(3)Both A and B are true.✓ Correct answer
(4)Neither A nor B is true.
Explanation
The Moderates admired modern Western (European) democratic, liberal and scientific culture, and also produced the economic critique of British rule (Dadabhai Naoroji's drain theory, R.C. Dutt). Both statements are true.
Q147 · World & Indian Geography
What is the correct order of the following mountain ranges from North to South ?
A. Ladakh
B. Shiwalik
C. Karakoram
D. Zaskar
Codes :
(1)A, C, B, D
(2)D, C, A, B
(3)C, A, D, B✓ Correct answer
(4)C, B, A, D
Explanation
From north to south: Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar and then the Shiwalik (the outermost Himalaya). Order C, A, D, B.
Q148 · World & Indian Geography
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(1)The variability of rainfall at Chennai is more than that of Mumbai.
(2)The retreating monsoon causes some rains in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu.
(3)The western disturbances originate from the Mediterranean Sea.
(4)The Monsoon Expedition (Monex) was organized under the joint auspices of the United States of America (U.S.A.) and India.✓ Correct answer
Explanation
MONEX (Monsoon Experiment, 1979) was an international experiment under the WMO/ICSU Global Atmospheric Research Programme with many countries (including the then USSR), not a joint India–USA venture, so statement 4 is incorrect. Chennai's rainfall variability is higher than Mumbai's, the retreating monsoon brings rain to coastal Tamil Nadu, and western disturbances originate over the Mediterranean.
Q149 · World & Indian Geography
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I (Tributary) — List – II (River)
A. Rapti — i. Brahmaputra
B. Tista — ii. Narmada
C. Hiran — iii. Godavari
D. Purna — iv. Ghaghra
Codes :
(1)A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2)A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4)A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii✓ Correct answer
Explanation
Rapti joins the Ghaghra; Tista joins the Brahmaputra; Hiran is a tributary of the Narmada; Purna (of Maharashtra) joins the Godavari. So A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii.
Q150 · World & Indian Geography
In which forest zone of the world highest deforestation has been recorded ?
(1)Coniferous
(2)Tropical✓ Correct answer
(3)Savana Deciduous
(4)Tidal
Explanation
The highest deforestation is recorded in tropical forests (Amazon, Congo basin, South-East Asia), driven by agriculture, cattle ranching, logging and mining.
Questions: Rajasthan Public Service Commission. Answers: RPSC final answer key. Explanations: TopKaro.
