Held 1 October 2023Booklet SAR-23, paper code 00Answers from RPSC's final answer key (20 October 2023)
The East-West Corridor connect ________ to ________.
Explanation
Under the NHDP, the East-West Corridor runs about 3,300 km from Silchar (Assam) to Porbandar (Gujarat); it crosses the North-South Corridor (Srinagar–Kanyakumari) at Jhansi. Hence option 3, Silchar to Porbandar, is correct.
Which is the incorrect pair ?
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. The likely reason is that the regional placement of these lesser-known Aravalli peaks (and their spellings) differs between standard sources, so a single incorrect pair could not be fixed.
Which of the following group of districts are correctly arranged in descending order as per the amount of monsoon rainfall they receive ?
Explanation
Monsoon rainfall in Rajasthan falls from south-east/east to west: Dholpur (about 650–700 mm) gets more than Rajsamand (about 550–600 mm), which gets more than Jalore (about 400 mm). So 'Dholpur, Rajsamand, Jalore' is in descending order; the other groups are not (e.g. Baran receives more than Bhilwara, and Bharatpur more than Pali).
Which three rivers of the following form 'Triveni' Sangam ?
Explanation
The Triveni Sangam at Bigod (Mandalgarh, Bhilwara) is the confluence of the Banas, Menal and Berach (Bedach) rivers, so option 1 is correct. Do not confuse it with Beneshwar (Dungarpur), where the Som, Mahi and Jakham meet.
As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, the forest cover in terms of vegetation cover is 16,654 square km, it is ________ percent of Rajasthan's geographical area.
Explanation
Rajasthan's geographical area is 3,42,239 sq km. 16,654 ÷ 3,42,239 × 100 ≈ 4.87%, which is the forest cover reported by ISFR 2021.
Which are the largest Bauxite and Mica producing States in India ? Bauxite — Mica
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. Likely reason: none of the pairs is clearly correct — Odisha is the largest bauxite producer, and Andhra Pradesh/Rajasthan lead in mica depending on the data year, so the option set did not fit.
The first sugar industry based on beet-root was established at –
Explanation
The first beet-root based sugar factory of Rajasthan (and India) was set up at Sri Ganganagar in 1968 by the Ganganagar Sugar Mills. Bhopalsagar and Keshoraypatan have cane-based sugar mills.
The Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project is a joint venture of –
Explanation
The Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project on the Mahi river in Banswara is a joint project of Rajasthan and Gujarat (cost and benefits shared roughly 45:55).
Choose the district of Rajasthan which had the lowest decadal population growth rate between 2001-2011.
Explanation
As per Census 2011, Sri Ganganagar had the lowest decadal population growth (about 10%) among Rajasthan's districts in 2001–2011, while Barmer had the highest (about 32%).
Kalakhuta, Leelwani, Nardiya, Timmamori are producing regions of which mineral in Rajasthan ?
Explanation
Kalakhunta, Lilwani, Narodia and Timamahudi (Tambesara belt) in Banswara district are Rajasthan's main manganese-producing areas.
Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station is located at –
Explanation
Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station (1,200 MW, RVUNL) is at Nimoda, Jhalawar district, on the Kalisindh river.
Which is not a correct match ? Wildlife Sanctuary — District
Explanation
Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary is in Baran district (on the Parvan river), not Bundi, so that pair is incorrect. Bassi is in Chittorgarh, Ramsagar Van Vihar in Dholpur and Sitamata mainly in Pratapgarh.
Mahi Kanchan and RCB 911 are hybrid variety of –
Explanation
Mahi Kanchan is a maize hybrid developed at the Banswara agricultural research station, and RCB-911 (Raj Bajra Chari) is a bajra (pearl millet) variety.
Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India : (i) The final session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 24th January, 1950. (ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was declared to be duly elected to the office of President of India in this final session.
Explanation
The Constituent Assembly held its final session on 24 January 1950; on that day it adopted the National Anthem and Song and declared Dr. Rajendra Prasad duly elected as the first President of India. So both statements are correct.
Which of the following schedule of the Constitution of India was added to the Constitution by the first Constitutional Amendment ?
Explanation
The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 added the Ninth Schedule (and Articles 31A and 31B) to protect land-reform laws from judicial challenge.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 after Supreme Court's verdict in Maneka Gandhi Case, 1978.
Explanation
After Maneka Gandhi (1978), any law depriving life or liberty must be 'just, fair and reasonable', and the State must justify the procedure; it is not for the petitioner alone to prove arbitrariness. So statement 1 is the incorrect one. The other statements reflect the judgment: Articles 14, 19 and 21 are linked, the procedure is close to due process, and the right to life includes living with dignity.
Nathmal Ji Ki Haveli is located in
Explanation
Nathmal ji ki Haveli, built in the 19th century by two brothers for Diwan Mohata Nathmal, is in Jaisalmer, along with Patwon ki and Salim Singh ki havelis.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Explanation
The statement about Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is incorrect: Mohammad Hamid Ansari also served two consecutive terms (2007–2017) as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The other statements are true: the First Amendment (1951) was passed by the unicameral Provisional Parliament, 8 members come from UTs (Delhi 3, Puducherry 1, J&K 4), and joint sittings were held in 1961, 1978 and 2002.
Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding "No-Confidence Motion" ?
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. Likely reason: the figures in the statements were disputable — a fresh no-confidence motion was debated in August 2023, so the count 'till 15 August 2023' was unclear, making more than one statement contestable.
Match the following List – P (Directive Principles) with List – R (Articles) : List – P — List – R A. Equal justice and free legal aid — I. Article 48 A B. Protection of the environment — II. Article 39 A C. Right to Work — III. Article 41 D. Protection of Monuments — IV. Article 49 Select correct option :
Explanation
Equal justice and free legal aid is Article 39A, environment protection is 48A, right to work is 41 and protection of monuments is 49. So A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV.
Which of the following sections of the Right to Information Act is not related to the functions and powers of the Central Information Commission ?
Explanation
Section 12 of the RTI Act deals only with the constitution of the Central Information Commission. Section 18 gives its powers and functions, Section 19 covers appeals it hears, and Section 25 its monitoring and annual reporting. So Section 12 is the answer.
Which one of the following Commission did recommend the establishment of an Inter-Government Council in place of Inter-State Council ?
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263, to be called the Inter-Governmental Council. The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on this basis.
Consider the following statements : (i) The Lok Sabha Elections of 1989 marked the end of, what Political Scientists have called, the 'Congress System'. (ii) Indian National Congress emerged as the single largest party in the 1989 Lok Sabha Elections.
Explanation
The 1989 Lok Sabha election ended the era of Congress dominance that Rajni Kothari called the 'Congress System'. Even so, Congress, with about 197 seats, was still the single largest party; the National Front formed the government with outside support. So both statements are correct.
Match the following List-P (CAG) with List-R (Articles) : List-P — List-R A. Appointment of CAG — I. Article 148 B. Duties and Powers of CAG — II. Article 151 C. Form of Accounts of the Union — III. Article 149 D. Audit Reports — IV. Article 150 Select correct option.
Explanation
The appointment of the CAG is in Article 148, duties and powers in 149, form of accounts of the Union and States in 150, and audit reports in 151. So A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II.
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Chief Minister of Rajasthan ?
Explanation
The shortest tenure as Chief Minister of Rajasthan was Hira Lal Devpura's (about 16 days in 1985), not Barkatullah Khan's (1971–73), so that statement is not correct. Sukhadia took oath four times; Haridev Joshi was CM during the 1975 Emergency; and C.S. Venkatachari, an ICS officer, was a nominated (not elected) CM in 1951.
What can be the minimum strength of Rajasthan's Council of Ministers ?
Explanation
Article 164(1A), added by the 91st Amendment (2003), says a State's Council of Ministers, including the CM, cannot have fewer than 12 members or more than 15% of the Assembly's strength. For Rajasthan this means a minimum of 12 and a maximum of 30.
In the Presidential Election, 2022, the vote value of each member of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly was –
Explanation
An MLA's vote value = State population (1971) ÷ number of MLAs ÷ 1000 = 2,57,65,806 ÷ 200 ÷ 1000 = 128.83, which rounds to 129.
According to Article 217(1) of the Constitution, a Judge other than the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with –
Explanation
Under Article 217(1), a High Court judge is appointed by the President after consulting the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State and, for judges other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of that High Court.
Which of the following recommended the post of Rajpramukh to be abolished in Rajasthan and the arrangement of the Governor was made instead ?
Explanation
On the recommendation of the State Reorganisation Commission (Fazl Ali Commission), the 7th Constitutional Amendment (1956) abolished the post of Rajpramukh, and Rajasthan got a Governor from 1 November 1956 (Gurumukh Nihal Singh).
Which one of the following is not a part of Rajasthan Urban Drinking Water Sewerage and Infrastructure Corporation Limited ?
Explanation
RUDSICO was formed by bringing together RUIFDC, Rajasthan Avas Vikas Infrastructure Ltd (RAVIL) and the Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Development Project (RUIDP). Rajasthan Housing Board remains a separate statutory board, so it is not a part.
Through which Amendment Act, the existing, 'Village Level Workers' has been substituted by the 'Gram Vikas Adhikari' ?
Explanation
The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2021 replaced the term 'Village Level Worker' (Gram Sevak) with 'Gram Vikas Adhikari' and dropped the category of gram sevikas.
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan Public Service Commission : (i) The chairman and members of the commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan. (ii) The chairman or any other member of the commission shall only be removed from his office, by order of the President.
Explanation
Under Article 316 the Governor appoints the chairman and members of a State PSC, but under Article 317 they can be removed only by order of the President. So both statements are correct.
Tehsildar is appointed by –
Explanation
In Rajasthan, Tehsildars belong to the Rajasthan Tehsildar Service, whose appointing authority is the Board of Revenue, Ajmer (posts are mostly filled by promotion of Naib Tehsildars). So RPSC keyed the Board of Revenue.
A Committee constituted in 2014 under the Chairmanship of Narpat Mal Lodha is related to which of the following subjects ?
Explanation
In 2014 the Rajasthan government set up a committee under Justice (retd.) Narpat Mal Lodha to suggest changes to make the Lokayukta institution stronger and more effective.
Consider the following statements regarding State Election Commission, Rajasthan : (i) It was constituted in July, 1994 under Article 243 K of the Constitution of India. (ii) It is a single member commission headed by the State Election Commissioner.
Explanation
The Rajasthan State Election Commission was set up in July 1994 under Article 243K (and 243ZA) after the 73rd/74th Amendments, and it is a single-member body headed by the State Election Commissioner. So both statements are correct.
In April, 2023, a Bench of Rajasthan State Information Commission is approved by State Government to be established at which city ?
Explanation
In April 2023 the State Government approved setting up a bench of the Rajasthan State Information Commission at Jodhpur, so that appellants from western Rajasthan need not travel to Jaipur.
Which of the following scheme is associated with slogan – "Koi Bhukha Na Soye" ?
Explanation
Indira Rasoi Yojana (launched August 2020) serves cheap, nutritious meals in cities with the motto 'Koi Bhukha Na Soye' (No one should sleep hungry).
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission : (i) Commission has one chairperson and four members in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. (ii) At present, Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas is its chairperson.
Explanation
Statement (i) is wrong: after the 2006 amendment a State Human Rights Commission has a chairperson and two members, not four. Statement (ii) was correct at the time: Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas was the chairperson. So only (ii) is correct.
Which of the following expression shows the formula of Gross Fiscal Deficit ?
Explanation
Gross fiscal deficit is the government's total borrowing requirement: net borrowing at home + borrowing from the RBI + borrowing from abroad. 'Total expenditure – revenue receipts' is incomplete because non-debt capital receipts must also be subtracted.
Which of the following is NOT a Public good ?
Explanation
Public goods are non-rival and non-excludable, like defence, administration and roads. A car is a private good: one person's use excludes others, and it is sold in the market.
Consider the following statements regarding inflation : Statement (A) : Head-line inflation refers to the rate of change in the Consumer Price Index Number, a measure of the average price of a standard basket of goods and services consumed by a typical family. Statement (B) : Core inflation measures the change in average consumer prices after excluding from the Consumer Price Index certain items of volatile prices such as food and fuel. Of these statements,
Explanation
Headline inflation is the change in the full CPI basket. Core inflation excludes volatile items such as food and fuel. Both definitions are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme : (i) It guarantees per year 125 days' employment for families residing in Urban Areas. (ii) After registration, the eligible candidate has to be provided employment in 30 days.
Explanation
Indira Gandhi Shahari Rozgar Guarantee Yojana guarantees 125 days of work a year to urban families (raised from 100 days in 2023), so (i) is correct. After registration, work must be given within 15 days, not 30, so (ii) is wrong.
Which of the following is not a measure of selective credit control ?
Explanation
Selling government securities (open market operations) is a quantitative or general credit control. Margin requirements, credit rationing and moral suasion are selective (qualitative) controls.
Which of the following statement, related to Pharmaceutical sector is not correct ?
Explanation
India supplies about 60% of global vaccine production, not 80%. India is the largest provider of generic medicines and ranks 3rd in pharma production by volume and 14th by value.
The rank of India in Global Happiness Index 2023 is
Explanation
In the World Happiness Report 2023 (UN SDSN), India ranked 126th of 137 countries; Finland was 1st.
Which of the following statement related to automobile sector is not correct ?
Explanation
Official figures (IBEF / Economic Survey) put the auto sector's direct and indirect employment at about 3.7 crore, not 5.3 crore, so that statement is not correct. It does contribute about 7.1% of GDP; India was the 4th largest car maker and the largest maker of two- and three-wheelers in 2021.
Which of the following is NOT a tool of fiscal policy ?
Explanation
Fiscal policy works through government taxation, public expenditure, borrowing and deficit financing. The interest rate is a tool of monetary policy, controlled by the RBI.
As per the advance estimates of the year 2022-23, what percent share is Rajasthan's GSDP estimated to contribute in India's nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) ?
Explanation
As per the Rajasthan Economic Review 2022-23, the State's GSDP at current prices (advance estimate, about ₹14.14 lakh crore) is about 5.18% of India's nominal GDP (about ₹273 lakh crore).
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Atal Bhujal Scheme in Rajasthan ? (a) Atal Bhujal Scheme has been running by Government of Rajasthan with the Financial assistance of Govt. of India. (b) The focus of this scheme is on better management of ground water as well as to prevent its reducing level. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, only (b) is correct. Atal Bhujal Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme of the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti, co-funded by the World Bank, and not a State scheme run with Central aid. Its focus is community-led groundwater management to stop the falling water table.
Which of the following fact is not correct about Mukhya Mantri Laghu Udhyog Protsahan Yojana (MLUPY) of Rajasthan ?
Explanation
Under the Mukhyamantri Laghu Udyog Protsahan Yojana, the interest subsidy is 8% on loans up to ₹25 lakh, 6% on ₹25 lakh–₹5 crore and 5% on ₹5–10 crore. There is no 4% subsidy on loans up to ₹15 crore, so option 1 is not correct.
In the year 2022-23, contribution of which sub-sector in Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at current prices of service sector of Rajasthan was maximum ?
Explanation
As per the Rajasthan Economic Review 2022-23, within the service sector at current prices, 'Trade, Repair, Hotels & Restaurants' has the largest share. It is followed by 'Real Estate, Ownership of Dwellings & Professional Services'.
Which sector is likely to show highest increase in the real GSVA (Gross State Value Added) at constant basic prices (2011-12) in the year 2022-23 over previous year ?
Explanation
As per the advance estimates in the Rajasthan Economic Review 2022-23, the service sector shows the highest growth in real GSVA (constant 2011-12 prices) over 2021-22, ahead of industry and agriculture.
Which agency is funding upgradation of 801 km of 11 state highways in Rajasthan State Highways Development Program-II project ?
Explanation
The Rajasthan State Highways Development Program-II, which upgrades about 801 km of 11 state highways, is financed by the World Bank (loan of about US$ 250 million).
In Rajasthan, which agency is entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of PM-KUSUM Yojana (component A) i.e. installation of small solar power plants of 0.5 MW to 2 MW capacity ?
Explanation
In Rajasthan, Component A of PM-KUSUM (decentralised 0.5–2 MW solar plants on farmers' land) is implemented by the Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Ltd (RRECL), the State's nodal agency for renewable energy.
In Rajasthan, the Energy Conservation Day is celebrated on
Explanation
Energy Conservation Day is observed on 14 December in Rajasthan, as across India. 5 June is World Environment Day, 22 April Earth Day and 21 March World Forestry Day.
Government of Rajasthan enacted the Rajasthan Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in year
Explanation
Rajasthan enacted its Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act in 2005, following the Centre's FRBM Act of 2003.
In which of the following scheme, the main objective is to promote the use of appropriate methods, care and services during pregnancy, safe delivery and lactation period to improve the health and nutritional status of pregnant and lactating women and their infants (0-6 months) ?
Explanation
As per RPSC's key, the stated aim describes the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana. It gives cash incentives to pregnant and lactating women to promote proper care and service use during pregnancy, safe delivery and lactation, and to improve the health and nutrition of mother and infant.
Which of the following options indicate one of the important objectives of (Indira Mahila) Shakti Udaan Scheme ?
Explanation
The (Indira Mahila) Shakti Udaan Scheme gives free sanitary napkins to women and girls. Its main aim is awareness of menstrual health and hygiene management.
Which among the following is a Narcotic analgesic drug ?
Explanation
Morphine, an opium alkaloid, is a narcotic analgesic: it relieves severe pain but can cause sleep and addiction. Aspirin and paracetamol are non-narcotic analgesics, and arsphenamine (salvarsan) is an antisyphilitic drug.
Myopia and Hypermetropia can be respectively corrected by
Explanation
In myopia the image forms in front of the retina, so a concave (diverging) lens corrects it. In hypermetropia the image forms behind the retina, so a convex (converging) lens is used. Cylindrical lenses correct astigmatism.
Which of the following scheme is an attempt to make rural areas socially, economically and physically sustainable regions ?
Explanation
The Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (2016) develops clusters of villages into 'Rurban' areas, with the stated aim of making rural areas socially, economically and physically sustainable.
Arrange the following units of measure for digital information into correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going to the largest unit : a. Kilobyte b. Byte c. Megabyte d. Terabyte e. Gigabyte f. Bit
Explanation
Bit < Byte (8 bits) < Kilobyte < Megabyte < Gigabyte < Terabyte, each step being 1024 times the previous one from byte onwards. So the order is f, b, a, c, e, d.
On 23rd August 2023, LCA (Light Combat Aircraft) Tejas successfully test fired ASTRA missile, this missile is
Explanation
ASTRA, developed by DRDO, is India's indigenous Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM). It was test-fired from LCA Tejas off Goa on 23 August 2023.
Satellites TeLEOS-2 and Lumelite-4 were launched in April 23 from Sriharikota by the launcher
Explanation
On 22 April 2023, ISRO's PSLV-C55 launched Singapore's TeLEOS-2 (primary) and Lumelite-4 (co-passenger) satellites from Sriharikota under a NSIL commercial contract.
If in a material one dimension is reduced to the Nano range while the other two dimensions remain large, the structure so obtained is known as
Explanation
If one dimension is at nano scale and two remain large, electrons are confined in one direction only: this is a quantum well, a 2-D nanostructure such as a thin film. Two nano dimensions give a quantum wire, and all three give a quantum dot.
Which of the following file format is not a video file format ?
Explanation
.MP3 (MPEG-1 Audio Layer III) is an audio-only format, while .MP4, .MOV and .AVI are video container formats.
Choose wrong statement regarding proteins :
Explanation
Proteins make up only about 15–20% of body weight; water makes up about 60–70%. So '30 percent' is the wrong statement. Proteins are made of amino acids, come from both plant and animal sources, and are called the body's building blocks.
The Red Blood cells of a person with Blood group 'O' contains Agglutinogen :
Explanation
Blood group O red cells carry neither antigen (agglutinogen) A nor B. The plasma contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, which is why O is the 'universal donor' for red cells.
Which one of the following diseases is not a bacterial disease ?
Explanation
Dengue is a viral disease (dengue virus spread by the Aedes mosquito). Diphtheria (Corynebacterium), plague (Yersinia pestis) and pneumonia (commonly Streptococcus pneumoniae) are bacterial.
Species of Plasmodium which causes Malignant Malaria :
Explanation
Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant (cerebral, falciparum) malaria, the most severe and often fatal form. P. vivax and P. ovale cause benign tertian malaria.
NTU is the unit for measuring
Explanation
NTU (Nephelometric Turbidity Unit) measures the turbidity (cloudiness) of water using a nephelometer. The BIS limit for drinking water is 1 NTU (permissible up to 5 NTU).
Which of the following do not grow in polluted area ?
Explanation
Lichens are very sensitive to air pollution, especially SO₂, and do not grow in polluted areas, so they are used as bio-indicators of clean air. Pseudomonas and many algae can flourish in polluted conditions.
Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is situated at
Explanation
The Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB), an institute of the Department of Biotechnology, is in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
Out of total Oxygen present in the earth's atmosphere, the estimated production of oxygen by Amazon forest through photosynthesis is
Explanation
The widely quoted estimate is that the Amazon rainforest produces about 20% of the oxygen generated by photosynthesis on Earth, which is why it is called the 'lungs of the planet'. Scientists note that its net contribution is much lower, since the forest also consumes most of this oxygen.
National Research Centre on camel is located at
Explanation
The ICAR National Research Centre on Camel is at Jorbeer, Bikaner (set up in 1984). Avikanagar (Tonk) has the Central Sheep and Wool Research Institute, and Jodhpur has CAZRI.
Which one of the following is a group of millet crops ?
Explanation
Sorghum (jowar), kodo, kangani (foxtail millet) and ragi (finger millet) are all millets (Shri Anna). Maize is a coarse cereal but not a millet, and moong is a pulse, so the other groups are wrong.
Which of these companies is established by Government of Rajasthan with the aim to regulate developing needs of Information Technology skills in 21st century ?
Explanation
Rajasthan Knowledge Corporation Ltd. (RKCL) was set up in 2002 by the Government of Rajasthan (with Vardhman Mahaveer Open University) to spread IT literacy and skills; it runs courses such as RS-CIT.
A bill was passed by Rajasthan Assembly in 2023 to establish second Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University at
Explanation
On 20 July 2023 the Rajasthan Assembly passed the Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University (Jobner) Jaipur Bill, 2023, creating the state's second veterinary university at Jobner; the first is RAJUVAS, Bikaner.
Which of these natural resources is considered as non-renewable resource ?
Explanation
Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) formed over millions of years and cannot be replenished on a human time-scale, so they are non-renewable. Solar and wind energy are renewable, and timber can be regrown.
A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Choose which of the argument/s is/are strong : Statement : Should all diesel engines be replaced by electric engines in trains ? Arguments : I. Yes, diesel engine causes a lot of pollution. II. No, India does not produce enough electricity to fulfil even the domestic needs.
Explanation
Argument I is strong because reducing pollution is a valid and relevant reason for switching to electric engines. Argument II is weak because it rests on a doubtful sweeping claim and electricity supply can be expanded, so only I is strong.
A statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption/s is/are implicit in the given statement : Statement : If it does not rain throughout this month, most of the farmers would be in trouble this year. Assumptions : I. Timely rain is essential for farming. II. Most of the farmers are generally dependent on rains.
Explanation
Saying farmers will be in trouble if it does not rain this month assumes that timely rain is essential for farming (I) and that most farmers depend on rain (II). Both assumptions are implicit.
Study the given statement then decide which of the suggested course of action follows logically : Statement : The meteorological department has issued a notification forecasting less rainfall during next year's monsoon. Course of Action: I. The government should make arguments to provide water to the affected areas. II. The farmers should be advised to be ready for the eventuality.
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. Likely reason: the English version says the government should 'make arguments' while the Hindi says 'make arrangements' (प्रबंध), so the two versions did not match.
A statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions and decide which of them logically follows : Statement : After joining, Municipal Commissioner told to people of city "A" – "My first and foremost task is to beautify this city like Indore." Conclusions : I. The people of city "A" are not aware about the present condition of the city. II. The Commissioner has worked in Indore and has good experience of beautifying cities.
Explanation
The statement only tells us the Commissioner's priority. It says nothing about whether citizens know the city's condition (I) or whether he has worked in Indore (II); Indore is just cited as a model. So neither conclusion follows.
Next term of the following sequence is : A^(3/2) B_2, C^(9/2) F_18, E^(15/2) J_50, G^(21/2) N_98, ?
Explanation
First letters A, C, E, G → I (+2); powers 3/2, 9/2, 15/2, 21/2 → 27/2 (+3); second letters B, F, J, N → R (+4); subscripts 2, 18, 50, 98 = 2×1², 2×3², 2×5², 2×7² → 2×9² = 162. Next term: I^(27/2) R_162.
In a certain code language, ABONDONMENT is written as DNOBAOTNEMN and ESTABLISHED is written as BATSELDEHSI. Then in the same code language, GERMINATION will be written as ?
Explanation
Each 11-letter word is split as first 5 letters | middle letter | last 5 letters; the two groups of five are reversed and the middle letter stays: ABOND-O-NMENT → DNOBA-O-TNEMN. So GERMI-N-ATION → IMREG-N-NOITA = IMREGNNOITA.
A family has eight members. E is the mother of F and G. A is the son-in-law of E. C is the daughter of G. D is the maternal grandfather of C. D has one son and one daughter. H is the sister-in-law of G. B is the niece of F. How is F related to A ?
Explanation
D is C's maternal grandfather, so C's mother G is D's daughter and D is E's husband. D has one son and one daughter, so G is the daughter and F the son. A, E's son-in-law, is G's husband; hence F is A's brother-in-law.
Five girls are standing in a ground at a certain distance. Rekha and Beena are 18 m apart from each other. Veena is standing somewhere in the mid of Rekha and Beena. Pinky is standing 5 m North to Rekha. Rekha is 12 m West to Veena. Yamini is standing 8 m South to Beena. What is the shortest distance between Pinky and Yamini ?
Explanation
This question was deleted by RPSC in its final answer key; marks were given to all candidates. Likely reason: taking Rekha at (0,0), Beena 18 m east, Pinky at (0,5) and Yamini at (18,−8), the distance is √(18²+13²) = √493 ≈ 22.2 m, which matches none of the options.
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row. T and U have one person in between them. V is immediate right to P. Q is immediate left to U. There is one person between S and P. S is not the neighbour of V. V and U have two persons between them. R is immediate left to P. Which person is sitting exactly in the middle of the row ?
Explanation
Applying all the conditions gives the unique row S R P V T Q U (left to right): R–P–V are consecutive, S is two places from P, Q is just left of U, T and U have one person between them, and V and U have two between them. The 4th (middle) seat is V.
Images of consonants of the capital English alphabets are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which look like their original shapes ?
Explanation
In a (vertical) mirror, letters with left–right symmetry look unchanged. Among consonants these are H, M, T, V, W, X, Y — 7 letters.
A solid cube has been formed with 64 smaller cubes. How many smaller cubes will not be visible in any condition ?
Explanation
64 cubes form a 4×4×4 cube. The cubes that never show are the inner core of (4−2)³ = 2³ = 8 cubes.
Three students A, B and C of a school receive cash prize in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 in a competition. Then the school principal gives ₹ 4,000 to each student. As a result now the cash prize of A, B and C becomes in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. How much did B get in the competition ?
Explanation
Let the prizes be 3k, 4k, 5k. Then (3k+4000)/(4k+4000) = 5/6 → 18k+24000 = 20k+20000 → k = 2000. B got 4k = ₹8,000 (check: 10000:12000:14000 = 5:6:7).
A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation ?
Explanation
Error = 5/3 − 3/5 = 16/15. Percentage error = (16/15)/(5/3) × 100 = 16/25 × 100 = 64%.
In a group of 400 boys, each boy plays atleast one of the games cricket, hockey and football. 185 play cricket, 165 play hockey and 160 play football. 40 boys play only cricket and football. 20 boys play only hockey and cricket. 10 boys play only hockey and football. How many boys play all the three games ?
Explanation
Total = (sum of single-game counts) − (those playing exactly two) − 2×(all three): 400 = (185+165+160) − (40+20+10) − 2x = 440 − 2x, so x = 20.
If S represents the area of a square inscribed in a circle and T represents the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the same circle, then which of the following is correct ?
Explanation
For radius r: the inscribed square has diagonal 2r, so S = 2r². The inscribed equilateral triangle has side r√3, so T = (√3/4)(3r²) = 3√3r²/4. T/S = 3√3/8, i.e. 8T = 3√3 S.
Following table shows runs scored by four batsmen in both innings of a test match. Who is the fastest run scorer in the test match ? Batsman | First Inning: Runs scored, Balls faced | Second Inning: Runs scored, Balls faced P | 79, 91 | 56, 154 Q | 05, 12 | 50, 85 R | 14, 76 | 61, 99 S | 37, 50 | 13, 55
Explanation
Compare total runs per 100 balls over both innings: P 135/245 ≈ 55.1, Q 55/97 ≈ 56.7, R 75/175 ≈ 42.9, S 50/105 ≈ 47.6. Q has the highest strike rate.
If the median A and mode B of following distribution satisfy the relation 7 (B – A) = 9C, then find the value of C : Class | 0-30 | 30-60 | 60-90 | 90-120 Frequency | 4 | 5 | 7 | 4
Explanation
N = 20, N/2 = 10, cumulative 4, 9, 16 → median class 60–90: A = 60 + (10−9)/7 × 30 = 450/7. Modal class 60–90: B = 60 + (7−5)/(14−5−4) × 30 = 72. 7(B−A) = 504 − 450 = 54 = 9C → C = 6.
2/3 of a principal amount is deposited in the bank at compound interest at the rate of 10% per annum and rest of the principal amount is deposited in the post office at the simple interest rate of 15% per annum. If the difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years be ₹ 480, then total principal amount is equal to
Explanation
Let the total be P. CI on 2P/3 at 10% for 2 years = 0.21 × 2P/3 = 0.14P. SI on P/3 at 15% for 2 years = 0.30 × P/3 = 0.10P. Difference 0.04P = 480 → P = ₹12,000.
Find the probability that the product of four numbers is divisible by 5 or 10.
Explanation
As per RPSC's final answer key, the numbers are taken as random positive integers. Any number divisible by 10 is also divisible by 5, so we need the product divisible by 5. Each number's last digit is 0 or 5 with probability 1/5, so P = 1 − (4/5)⁴ = 1 − 256/625 = 369/625.
As per a notification issued recently by the Department of Forest, Environment and Climate Change of Rajasthan, how many wet-lands are there in the State ?
Explanation
On 19 July 2023 Rajasthan's Department of Forest, Environment and Climate Change notified 44 wetlands in 19 districts under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017; Baran has the most (12).
Where will the "Artificial Intelligence of Things Innovation Hub" be established in the Rajasthan ?
Explanation
The AIoT (Artificial Intelligence of Things) Innovation Hub is being set up at Jodhpur, at the IIT Jodhpur technology park, as a joint venture of the Rajasthan government (RISL), JCKIF and IIT Jodhpur.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority has accorded the fifth tiger reserve in Rajasthan at
Explanation
In 2023 the NTCA approved Dholpur–Karauli as Rajasthan's fifth tiger reserve, after Ranthambhore, Sariska, Mukundra Hills and Ramgarh Vishdhari.
In which of the following cities India's first 3D printed post office has been inaugurated recently ?
Explanation
India's first 3D-printed post office, at Cambridge Layout, Ulsoor in Bengaluru, was inaugurated in August 2023; it was built with L&T using IIT Madras technology.
"m" men and "n" women are to be seated in a row so that no two women sit together. If m > n, then number of ways in which they can be seated, is
Explanation
First seat the m men in m! ways. This leaves m+1 gaps, and the n women go into n different gaps in (m+1)!/(m+1−n)! ways. Total = m!(m+1)!/(m−n+1)!.
Which of the following institutions launched a centralised Web Portal 'UDGAM' recently ?
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India launched the UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access inforMation) portal in August 2023 so that people can search for their unclaimed deposits across banks in one place.
Read the following statements carefully : Statement 1 : According to TIME Magazine, S.S. Rajamouli has been named among the top "Pioneers" of 2023, while Shahrukh Khan has been named among the top "Icons" of 2023. Statement 2 : The TIME Magazine's 100 most influential people list has been divided into six major categories – Leader, Titan, Pioneer, Artist, Icon and Innovator. Select the correct option among the following :
Explanation
In TIME's 100 Most Influential People of 2023, S.S. Rajamouli was listed under 'Pioneers' and Shah Rukh Khan under 'Icons'. The list had six categories: Artists, Icons, Pioneers, Titans, Leaders and Innovators. So both statements are true.
United Nation's General Assembly has recently elected Dennis Francis to serve as President of its 78th session. He belongs to which of the following countries ?
Explanation
Dennis Francis, a diplomat from Trinidad and Tobago, was elected President of the 78th session of the UN General Assembly (2023–24).
In July 2023, a new variety of urea was launched by the Prime Minister of India at Sikar, Rajasthan. What is the name of this new variety of urea ?
Explanation
On 27 July 2023 at Sikar, PM Modi launched 'Urea Gold', a sulphur-coated urea that addresses sulphur deficiency in soil and improves nitrogen-use efficiency.
To identify practical applications of artificial intelligence, "AI for Good Global Summit 2023" was recently held in which of the following countries ?
Explanation
The 'AI for Good Global Summit 2023' was organised by the ITU (UN) in Geneva, Switzerland, in July 2023.
Which of the following personalities has been nominated for the Sahitya Academy Yuva Puraskaar 2023 for the Rajasthani language ?
Explanation
Devilal Mahiya received the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2023 for Rajasthani for his poetry collection 'Antas Ro Olmo'.
India's first ever outdoor Museum 'Shaheedi Park' has been recently inaugurated in which city ?
Explanation
India's first outdoor museum, 'Shaheedi Park', was inaugurated in August 2023 at ITO in Delhi by the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
Recently the Ecuadorians have made a historic decision by rejecting oil drilling by a referendum in which of the following biodiverse regions of Amazon ?
Explanation
In an August 2023 referendum, Ecuadorians voted to stop oil drilling in Block 43 inside Yasuni National Park, one of the most biodiverse parts of the Amazon.
Which Ministry is associated with the 'Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar' ?
Explanation
'Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar' is a programme of the Union Ministry of Culture (through IGNCA) to map and document the cultural heritage of India's villages.
9th 'India Region Conference' of the Common Wealth Parliamentary Association was held in which of the following cities ?
Explanation
The 9th India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association was held in Udaipur, Rajasthan, in September 2023.
What position is achieved by India in the medal telly of FISU World University Games 2023 ?
Explanation
At the FISU World University Games 2023 in Chengdu, China, India won 26 medals (11 gold, 5 silver, 10 bronze) and finished 7th in the medal table, its best-ever showing.
India defeated Malaysia in the final of Fourth Asian Champions Trophy of Hockey on 12th August, 2023. In which stadium this match was played ?
Explanation
The 2023 Asian Champions Trophy (hockey) was held in Chennai; the final, in which India beat Malaysia 4–3, was played at the Mayor Radhakrishnan Stadium.
Rajeshwari Kumari, who stood fifth in the recently held World Championship at Baku, Azerbaijan, has qualified for the Paris Olympics. She is related to which of the following sports ?
Explanation
Rajeshwari Kumari is a trap shooter. Her 5th place at the 2023 ISSF World Championship (Shotgun) in Baku earned India a Paris Olympics quota.
India's Kamaljeet clinched Gold Medal on 24th July, 2023 in Men's individual 50 metre Pistol Event at ISSF Junior Shooting World Championship 2023. In which of the following countries was the event held ?
Explanation
The ISSF Junior World Championship 2023 was held at Changwon, South Korea, where Kamaljeet won gold in the men's 50 m pistol.
Recently C.A. Bhavani Devi of India won a Bronze Medal in the Asian Fencing Championship. She lost to player of which country in the Semi-final ?
Explanation
At the 2023 Asian Fencing Championships in Wuxi, China, Bhavani Devi lost the sabre semi-final to Zaynab Dayibekova of Uzbekistan and won India's first medal (bronze) at the event.
Which institution in India has been selected for Gandhi Peace Award 2021 ?
Explanation
The Gandhi Peace Prize 2021 was given to Gita Press, Gorakhpur (founded 1923) for its contribution to non-violent and other Gandhian ways of social, economic and political change.
In the excavation of which of the following ancient site the huge collection of iron materials is found related to Malava Republic ?
Explanation
Rairh (Tonk), excavated by K.N. Puri (1938–40), gave a huge collection of iron tools and objects along with thousands of punch-marked and Malava coins, linking it to the Malava republic. Rairh is even called the 'ancient Tatanagar of Rajasthan'.
The brave Chauhan ruler of Ajmer who conquered Delhi and annexed it in his kingdom was –
Explanation
Vigraharaj IV (Visaldev) of the Chauhans of Ajmer took Delhi (Dhillika) from the Tomars and added it to the Chauhan kingdom. Prithviraj III later inherited Delhi; he did not conquer it.
The Arab traveller Suleman visited India in the reign of Pratihar King –
Explanation
The Arab merchant-traveller Suleman visited India around 851 CE, during the reign of the Gurjara-Pratihara king Mihir Bhoj (Bhoj I), and praised his strong cavalry and his hostility to the Arabs.
With which of the following Prajamandal Movement Kanhaiya Lal Mittal, Mangilal Bavya and Makbul Alam were associated ?
Explanation
The Jhalawar Rajya Praja Mandal was founded in 1946 by Mangilal Bhavya, with Makbool Alam, Kanhaiyalal Mittal and others.
When Matsya Sangh was merged into Vrihat Rajasthan ?
Explanation
The Matsya Union (Alwar, Bharatpur, Dhaulpur, Karauli) merged into Greater Rajasthan on 15 May 1949, forming 'United Greater Rajasthan'. Greater Rajasthan itself had been formed on 30 March 1949.
In which Rajput Thikana Moti Lal Tejawat was working on the post of Kamdar prior to launching the Aki Movement ?
Explanation
Before starting the Eki (unity) movement in 1921, Motilal Tejawat worked as kamdar of Jhadol (Jharol) thikana in Mewar.
What is the similarity between Jharol (Udaipur), Kurada (Nagore) and Sabania (Bikaner) ?
Explanation
Jharol (Udaipur), Kurada (Nagaur) and Sabania (Bikaner) are all sites where hoards of copper implements (axes, tools and the like) have been found.
The renowned artist Muhammed Shah was a court artist (Painter) of which Maharaja of Jaipur ?
Explanation
In the history of the Jaipur school of painting, Muhammad Shah is named, along with Sahibram, as a court painter of Sawai Jai Singh, under whom the Jaipur school took shape.
The men of which sect of Rajasthan perform the Agni Dance (Fire dance) ?
Explanation
The Agni (fire) dance, performed on burning embers, is done by the men of the Jasnathi (Siddha) sect, notably at Katariyasar in Bikaner.
The names of how many local dialects are mentioned in the Katha collection called Kuvlayamala ?
Explanation
Kuvalayamala, written by Udyotan Suri at Jalore in 778 CE, names 18 regional dialects (desh-bhashas), including Maru Bhasha, the ancestor of Rajasthani.
The author of 'Achaldas Khichi re Vachanika' is
Explanation
'Achaldas Khichi ri Vachanika', about the Khichi ruler Achaldas of Gagron and his fight against Hoshang Shah of Malwa, was written by Charan Shivdas Gadan.
Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
Explanation
Mallinathji is linked with Tilwara (Barmer), where the Mallinath cattle fair is held; Gagron is linked with Sant Pipa. The other pairs are correct: Ramdevji – Ramdevra, Tejaji – Kharnal, Pabuji – Kolu.
The Chandrabhaga fair is held every year in the month of Kartik at –
Explanation
The Chandrabhaga fair is held every Kartik (around Kartik Purnima) on the banks of the Chandrabhaga river at Jhalrapatan, Jhalawar.
Which of the following fort of Rajasthan is not a Giri Fort ?
Explanation
Gagron Fort (Jhalawar) is surrounded on three sides by the Ahu and Kali Sindh rivers and is a water fort (Jal Durg). Jalore, Chittorgarh and Siwana stand on hills and are Giri forts.
Who among the following discovered 'Surkotda', a site of Harappan culture ?
Explanation
Surkotada, a Harappan site in Kutch (Gujarat) known for horse remains, was discovered and excavated by Jagatpati Joshi in 1964.
In which dynasty did Chandragupta II marry his daughter Prabhavati and strengthened his position ?
Explanation
Chandragupta II married his daughter Prabhavati Gupta to the Vakataka king Rudrasena II. This alliance secured the Deccan flank for his campaign against the Western Kshatrapas (Shakas).
The Stupa of Bharhut is a fine example of -
Explanation
The Bharhut stupa (Madhya Pradesh), with its carved railings and gateways showing Jataka stories, is a classic example of Shunga-period art and architecture (2nd century BCE).
The author of 'Lalit Vigraharaj' drama was –
Explanation
The drama 'Lalit Vigraharaj' was written by the court poet Somdeva in honour of the Chauhan king Vigraharaj IV; parts of it are inscribed on stone slabs at Adhai Din ka Jhonpra, Ajmer.
Which of the following poet was given the title of 'Andhra Kavita Pitamah' by Krishnadev Ray ?
Explanation
Allasani Peddana, the foremost of Krishnadeva Raya's Ashtadiggajas and author of 'Manucharitramu', was given the title 'Andhra Kavita Pitamaha'.
In which of the following palace built by Akbar in Fatehpur Sikri the Buddhist architecture was followed ?
Explanation
The five-storeyed Panch Mahal at Fatehpur Sikri, with its open pillared storeys that shrink as they rise, was built on the plan of a Buddhist vihara.
Who was appointed first Raj Pramukh of Rajasthan ?
Explanation
When Greater Rajasthan (Rajasthan state) was formed on 30 March 1949, Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II of Jaipur was made its Rajpramukh for life, while Maharana Bhupal Singh of Udaipur was made Maharajpramukh. (Earlier unions of 1948 had other Rajpramukhs.)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded Servants of India Society in the year
Explanation
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in Pune on 12 June 1905 to train national missionaries for the service of India.
Who was the President of the special session of Indian National Congress held in Calcutta in September, 1920 in which the resolution of Non-Cooperation Movement was passed ?
Explanation
The special Calcutta session of the Congress in September 1920, which adopted the Non-Cooperation resolution, was presided over by Lala Lajpat Rai. The regular Nagpur session (December 1920), which ratified it, was presided over by C. Vijayaraghavachariar.
Which of the following were the members of State Reorganisation Commission formed by Indian Government in August, 1953 ? (i) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru (ii) Justice Fazal Ali (iii) K.M. Pannikar (iv) Hridayanath Kunjaru Select the correct answer by using the code given below :
Explanation
The States Reorganisation Commission (1953) had Justice Fazl Ali as chairman and K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru as members. Tej Bahadur Sapru was not a member (he died in 1949).
In which sea do river Elbe and river Rhine drain their water ?
Explanation
Both the Rhine (mouth in the Netherlands) and the Elbe (mouth near Hamburg, Germany) flow north-west and drain into the North Sea.
The spread of which of the following Sufi sect was mostly limited to Sindh, Multan and Punjab ?
Explanation
The Suhrawardi order, brought to India by Bahauddin Zakariya of Multan, stayed mainly in Sindh, Multan and Punjab, while the Chishti order spread widely across north India.
The problem of desertification is least in which of the following continents ?
Explanation
Europe has a mostly humid temperate climate and very little dryland, so desertification is least there. Africa, Asia and Australia have large arid and semi-arid regions that face severe desertification.
Consider the following statements : A. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for 'Karewa' formations. B. Nalagarh Dun is the largest of all Duns. C. Namcha Barwa mountain peak is located in Arunachal Himalayas. D. 'Valley of Flowers' is situated in Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas. Code :
Explanation
A is correct (Karewas are lacustrine deposits of the Kashmir Himalayas). C is correct (Namcha Barwa is in the Arunachal Himalayas). D is correct (the Valley of Flowers lies in the Himachal–Uttarakhand Himalayan division). B is wrong: Dehra Dun, not Nalagarh Dun, is the largest dun.
Which areas of India receive rainfall from North-East Monsoon ? A. Tamil Nadu Coast B. Gujarat Coast C. Southern Andhra Pradesh D. South-East Karnataka Code :
Explanation
The retreating North-East monsoon (October–December) picks up moisture over the Bay of Bengal and brings rain to the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh and south-east Karnataka. The Gujarat coast gets no rain from it.
Which is not a correct match ? Lake — Location in State
Explanation
Roopkund (the 'skeleton lake') is in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, not Himachal Pradesh. The other pairs are correct: Bhimtal – Uttarakhand, Pulicat – Tamil Nadu/Andhra border, Loktak – Manipur.
Among the following which is not an Industrial Region of U.S.A. ?
Explanation
The Midlands (Birmingham–Black Country) is an industrial region of the United Kingdom. The Cincinnati–Indianapolis, Great Kanawha Valley and Lake Michigan regions are industrial regions of the USA.
Questions: Rajasthan Public Service Commission. Answers: RPSC final answer key. Explanations: TopKaro.