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Cyber security MCQ with Answers

12 questionswith explanationsfor RSSB CET Graduation Level

Questions

Q1

Match List-I (malware) with List-II (description): List-I: A. Virus B. Worm C. Trojan horse D. Spyware List-II: 1. Attaches itself to a host file and spreads when that file is run 2. Looks like useful software but harms the system once installed 3. Secretly collects the user's information and sends it to others 4. Spreads through networks on its own, without needing a host file Choose the correct code:

  1. (1)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  2. (2)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  3. (3)A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
  4. (4)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Answer: (4) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Explanation

A virus needs a host file, a worm self-replicates across networks, a Trojan horse disguises itself as genuine software, and spyware secretly gathers user data.

Q2

A security system, in hardware or software, that monitors network traffic and allows or blocks it according to set security rules is called a:

  1. (1)Firewall
  2. (2)Modem
  3. (3)Compiler
  4. (4)Router table

Answer: (1) Firewall

Explanation

A firewall acts as a barrier between a trusted network and untrusted networks such as the internet, filtering traffic by rules.

Q3

A person in India loses money through an online (financial) fraud. Which national helpline number should be called at once, besides reporting the case on cybercrime.gov.in?

  1. (1)1098
  2. (2)1930
  3. (3)1091
  4. (4)1076

Answer: (2) 1930

Explanation

1930 is the national cyber-crime helpline of the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), Ministry of Home Affairs, for reporting financial cyber fraud; quick reporting helps block the money.

Q4

Consider the following statements about safe online banking: 1. Two-factor authentication (2FA) asks for two different kinds of proof, such as a password and an OTP sent to the registered mobile. 2. It is safe to share an OTP with a caller who says he is a bank official. 3. A strong password mixes capital and small letters, numbers and special characters. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. (1)1 and 2 only
  2. (2)2 and 3 only
  3. (3)1 and 3 only
  4. (4)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (3) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. An OTP must never be shared with anyone; banks never ask customers for their OTP, PIN or password.

Q5

In public-key (asymmetric) encryption, a message encrypted with the receiver's public key can be decrypted only with:

  1. (1)The sender's public key
  2. (2)The receiver's public key
  3. (3)The receiver's private key
  4. (4)Any shared password

Answer: (3) The receiver's private key

Explanation

Asymmetric encryption uses a key pair: what is locked with a public key can be unlocked only by the matching private key, which the receiver keeps secret.

Q6

Which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000, dealing with sending offensive messages through a communication service, was struck down by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)?

  1. (1)Section 43
  2. (2)Section 66A
  3. (3)Section 69A
  4. (4)Section 79

Answer: (2) Section 66A

Explanation

In March 2015 the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A as violating free speech under Article 19(1)(a); it upheld Section 69A (blocking) and read down Section 79.

Q7

Consider the following statements about the Information Technology Act, 2000: 1. It gave legal recognition to electronic records and digital signatures. 2. It was based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce adopted by the United Nations. 3. It was substantially amended by the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. (1)1 only
  2. (2)1 and 2 only
  3. (3)2 and 3 only
  4. (4)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (4) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All three are correct: the Act recognised e-records and digital signatures, its preamble refers to the UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce, and the 2008 amendment added offences such as cyber terrorism (Section 66F).

Q8

Under the directions issued by CERT-In on 28 April 2022, service providers, intermediaries, data centres, body corporates and government organisations must report specified cyber incidents to CERT-In within how many hours of noticing them?

  1. (1)6 hours
  2. (2)12 hours
  3. (3)24 hours
  4. (4)72 hours

Answer: (1) 6 hours

Explanation

The CERT-In directions of 28 April 2022, issued under Section 70B(6) of the IT Act, require reporting of specified cyber incidents within 6 hours of noticing them.

Q9

Match List-I (section of the Information Technology Act, 2000) with List-II (subject of the section): List-I A. Section 43 B. Section 65 C. Section 70 D. Section 70A List-II i. Designation of a national nodal agency for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection ii. Protected system iii. Penalty and compensation for damage to computer, computer system, etc. iv. Tampering with computer source documents

  1. (1)A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
  2. (2)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
  3. (3)A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
  4. (4)A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

Answer: (4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

Explanation

The IT Act, 2000 (India Code) headings read: Section 43 'Penalty and compensation for damage to computer, computer system, etc.', Section 65 'Tampering with computer source documents', Section 70 'Protected system' (a computer resource affecting Critical Information Infrastructure that the appropriate Government notifies) and Section 70A 'National nodal agency', which the Central Government designates for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection. Sections 70 and 70A are easily swapped: 70 declares the protected system, 70A names the agency; likewise 43 is a civil penalty in Chapter IX, while 65 is an offence in Chapter XI.

Q10

Consider the following statements about a digital signature: 1. It is created with the signer's private key and checked with the matching public key. 2. It encrypts the whole document so that only the receiver can read it. 3. It helps to detect whether the document was altered after it was signed. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. (1)1 and 2 only
  2. (2)2 and 3 only
  3. (3)1 and 3 only
  4. (4)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (3) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

A digital signature uses a key pair (private key to sign, public key to verify) and shows who signed and that the content was not changed. It does not hide the content, so statement 2 is wrong; secrecy needs separate encryption.

Q11

Consider the following statements about cyber attacks: 1. A brute-force attack tries possible passwords one after another until the right one is found. 2. In e-mail spoofing, the sender's address is forged so that the mail seems to come from a trusted source. 3. A man-in-the-middle attack floods a website with so much traffic that it stops working. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. (1)1 and 2 only
  2. (2)2 and 3 only
  3. (3)1 and 3 only
  4. (4)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (1) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct; long passwords and account lock-outs defeat brute-force guessing. Statement 3 describes a denial-of-service attack: a man-in-the-middle attacker secretly intercepts, and may alter, the messages between two parties.

Q12

Which type of malicious program or device secretly captures whatever a user types, such as passwords and card numbers, and passes it on to an attacker?

  1. (1)Keylogger
  2. (2)Adware
  3. (3)Firewall
  4. (4)Cookie

Answer: (1) Keylogger

Explanation

A keylogger logs every keystroke and sends it to the attacker, so typing a password on an untrusted shared computer is risky; an on-screen keyboard or two-step verification reduces the danger. A firewall is a defence, not an attack tool.